Thursday, September 25, 2014

SOAL SUBSTANSI GENETIK GRADE 6

1) For mapping studies of genomes, most of which were far along before 2000, the three-stage method was often used. Which of the following is the usual order in which the stages were performed, assuming some overlap of the three?
A) genetic map, sequencing of fragments, physical map
B) linkage map, physical map, sequencing of fragments
C) sequencing of entire genome, physical map, genetic map
D) cytogenetic linkage, sequencing, physical map
E) physical map, linkage map, sequencing
Answer: B

2) What is the difference between a linkage map and a physical map?
A) For a linkage map, markers are spaced by recombination frequency, whereas for a physical map they are spaced by numbers of base pairs (bp).
B) For a physical map, the ATCG order and sequence must be achieved; however, it does not for the linkage map.
C) For a linkage map, it is shown how each gene is linked to every other gene.
D) For a physical map, the distances must be calculable in units such as nanometers.
E) There is no difference between the two except in the type of pictorial representation.
Answer: A

3) How is a physical map of the genome of an organism achieved?
A) using recombination frequency
B) using very high-powered microscopy
C) using restriction enzyme cutting sites
D) using sequencing of nucleotides
E) using DNA fingerprinting via electrophoresis
Answer: C

4) Which of the following most correctly describes a shotgun technique for sequencing a genome?
A) genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing
B) physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing
C) cloning large genome fragments into very large vectors such as YACs, followed by sequencing
D) cloning several sizes of fragments into various size vectors, ordering the clones, and then sequencing them
E) cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other
Answer: D

5) The biggest problem with the shotgun technique is its tendency to underestimate the size of the genome. Which of the following might best account for this?
A) skipping some of the clones to be sequenced
B) missing some of the overlapping regions of the clones
C) counting some of the overlapping regions of the clones twice
D) having some of the clones die during the experiment and therefore not be represented
E) missing some duplicated sequences
Answer: E

6) What is metagenomics?
A) genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of its genus
B) the sequence of one or two representative genes from several species
C) the sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage
D) sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same ecosystem
E) genomics as applied to an entire phylum
Answer: D

7) Which procedure is not required when the shotgun approach to sequencing is modified as sequencing by synthesis, in which many small fragments are sequenced simultaneously?
A) use of restriction enzymes
B) sequencing each fragment
C) cloning each fragment into a plasmid
D) ordering the sequences
E) PCR amplification
Answer: C

8) What is bioinformatics?
A) a technique using 3-D images of genes in order to predict how and when they will be expressed
B) a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information
C) a software program available from NIH to design genes
D) a series of search programs that allow a student to identify who in the world is trying to sequence a given species
E) a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways
Answer: B

9) What is proteomics?
A) the linkage of each gene to a particular protein
B) the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
C) the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
D) the study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein
E) the study of how a single gene activates many proteins
Answer: B

10) Bioinformatics can be used to scan sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation, for probable splice sites, and for sequences known to be found in other known genes. Such sequences containing these elements are called
A) expressed sequence tags.
B) cDNA.
C) multigene families.
D) proteomes.
E) short tandem repeats.
Answer: A

11) A microarray known as a GeneChip, with most now-known human protein coding sequences, has been developed to aid in the study of human cancer by first comparing two to three subsets of cancer subtypes. What kind of information might be gleaned from this GeneChip to aid in cancer prevention?
A) information about whether or not a patient has this type of cancer prior to treatment
B) evidence that might suggest how best to treat a person's cancer with chemotherapy
C) data that could alert patients to what kind of cancer they were likely to acquire
D) information about which parent might have provided a patient with cancer-causing genes
E) information on cancer epidemiology in the United States or elsewhere
Answer: C

12) What is gene annotation in bioinformatics?
A) finding transcriptional start and stop sites, RNA splice sites, and ESTs
B) describing the functions of protein-coding genes
C) describing the functions of noncoding regions of the genome
D) matching the corresponding phenotypes of different species
E) comparing the protein sequences within a single phylum
Answer: A

13) Why is it unwise to try to relate an organism's complexity with its size or number of cells?
A) A very large organism may be composed of very few cells or very few cell types.
B) A single-celled organism, such as a bacterium or a protist, still has to conduct all the complex life functions of a large multicellular organism.
C) A single-celled organism that is also eukaryotic, such as a yeast, still reproduces mitotically.
D) A simple organism can have a much larger genome.
E) A complex organism can have a very small and simple genome.
Answer: B

14) Fragments of DNA have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. These can now be used to
A) introduce into relatives, such as elephants, certain mammoth traits.
B) clone live woolly mammoths.
C) study the relationships among woolly mammoths and other wool-producers.
D) understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related taxa.
E) appreciate the reasons why mammoths went extinct.
Answer: D

15) If humans have 2,900 Mb, a specific member of the lily family has 120,000 Mb, and a yeast has ~13 Mb, why can't this data allow us to order their evolutionary significance?
A) Size matters less than gene density.
B) Size does not compare to gene density.
C) Size does not vary with gene complexity.
D) Size is mostly due to "junk" DNA.
E) Size is comparable only within phyla.
Answer: C

16) Which of the following is a representation of gene density?
A) Humans have 2,900 Mb per genome.
B) C. elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C) Humans have ~20,000 genes in 2,900 Mb.
D) Humans have 27,000 bp in introns.
E) Fritillaria has a genome 40 times the size of a human.
Answer: C

17) Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila melanogaster?
A) The two insect species evolved at very different geologic eras.
B) Crickets have higher gene density.
C) Drosophila are more complex organisms.
D) Crickets must have more noncoding DNA.
E) Crickets must make many more proteins.
Answer: D

18) The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including
A) the density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals.
B) the number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the number of its genes.
C) most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA.
D) the genomes of other organisms are most significantly smaller than the human genome.
Answer: B

19) Barbara McClintock, who achieved fame for discovering that genes could move within genomes, had her meticulous work ignored for nearly four decades, but eventually won the Nobel Prize. Why was her work so distrusted?
A) The work of women scientists was still not allowed to be published.
B) Geneticists did not want to lose their cherished notions of DNA stability.
C) There were too many alternative explanations for transposition.
D) She allowed no one else to duplicate her work.
E) She worked only with maize, which was considered "merely" a plant.
Answer: B

20) What is the most probable explanation for the continued presence of pseudogenes in a genome such as our own?
A) They are genes that had a function at one time, but that have lost their function because they have been translocated to a new location.
B) They are genes that have accumulated mutations to such a degree that they would code for different functional products if activated.
C) They are duplicates or near duplicates of functional genes but cannot function because they would provide inappropriate dosage of protein products.
D) They are genes with significant inverted sequences.
E) They are genes that are not expressed, even though they have nearly identical sequences to expressed genes.
Answer: E

21) What characteristic of short tandem repeat DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting?
A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.
C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.
D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
Answer: A

22) Alu elements account for about 10% of the human genome. What does this mean?
A) Alu elements cannot be transcribed into RNA.
B) Alu elements evolved in very ancient times, before mammalian radiation.
C) Alu elements represent the result of transposition.
D) No Alu elements are found within individual genes.
E) Alu elements are cDNA and therefore related to retrotransposons.
Answer: C

23) A multigene family is composed of
A) multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed.
B) genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication.
C) the many tandem repeats such as those found in centromeres and telomeres.
D) a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways.
E) a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species.
Answer: B

24) Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?
A) DNA sequences above a minimum size only
B) DNA sequences below a minimum size only
C) entire chromosomes only
D) entire sets of chromosomes only
E) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
Answer: E

25) In comparing the genomes of humans and those of other higher primates, it is seen that humans have a large metacentric pair we call chromosome 2 among our 46 chromosomes, whereas the other primates of this group have 48 chromosomes and any pair like the human chromosome 2 pair is not present; instead, the primate groups each have two pairs of midsize acrocentric chromosomes. What is the most likely explanation?
A) The ancestral organism had 48 chromosomes and at some point a centric fusion event occurred and provided some selective advantage.
B) The ancestral organism had 46 chromosomes, but primates evolved when one of the pairs broke in half.
C) At some point in evolution, human ancestors and primate ancestors were able to mate and produce fertile offspring, making a new species.
D) Chromosome breakage results in additional centromeres being made in order for meiosis to proceed successfully.
E) Transposable elements transferred significantly large segments of the chromosomes to new locations.
Answer: A

26) Unequal crossing over during prophase I can result in one sister chromosome with a deletion and another with a duplication. A mutated form of hemoglobin, known as hemoglobin Lepore, is known in the human population. Hemoglobin Lepore has a deleted set of amino acids. If it was caused by unequal crossing over, what would be an expected consequence?
A) If it is still maintained in the human population, hemoglobin Lepore must be selected for in evolution.
B) There should also be persons born with, if not living long lives with, an anti-Lepore mutation or duplication.
C) Each of the genes in the hemoglobin gene family must show the same deletion.
D) The deleted gene must have undergone exon shuffling.
E) The deleted region must be located in a different area of the individual's genome.
Answer: B

27) When does exon shuffling occur?
A) during splicing of DNA
B) during mitotic recombination
C) as an alternative splicing pattern in post-transcriptional processing
D) as an alternative cleavage or modification post-translationally
E) as the result of faulty DNA repair
Answer: C

28) What are genomic "hot spots"?
A) the locations that correspond to most genetic diseases
B) the areas of a genome that most often mutate due to environmental effects
C) the locations that most often correspond with chromosomal breakpoints
D) the locations that correspond to most genetic diseases and the locations that most often correspond with chromosomal breakpoints
E) the locations that correspond to most genetic diseases, the areas of a genome that most often mutate due to environmental effects, and the locations that most often correspond with chromosomal breakpoints
Answer: E

29) In order to determine the probable function of a particular sequence of DNA in humans, what might be the most reasonable approach?
A) Prepare a knockout mouse without a copy of this sequence and examine the mouse phenotype.
B) Genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of this sequence and examine its phenotype.
C) Look for a reasonably identical sequence in another species, prepare a knockout of this sequence in that species, and look for the consequences.
D) Prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the sequence inserted and assess which new protein is synthesized.
E) Mate two individuals heterozygous for the normal and mutated sequences.
Answer: C

30) Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very diverse species. The homeobox is the code for that domain of a protein that binds to DNA in a regulatory developmental process. Which of the following would you then expect?
A) that homeotic genes are selectively expressed over developmental time
B) that a homeobox-containing gene has to be a developmental regulator
C) that homeoboxes cannot be expressed in nonhomeotic genes
D) that all organisms must have homeotic genes
E) that all organisms must have homeobox-containing genes
Answer: A

31) Which of the following studies would not likely be characterized as eco-devo?
A) the study of a particular species to see whether or not it has developmental regulation
B) a study of the assortment of homeotic genes in the zebra
C) a comparison of the functions of a particular homeotic gene among four species of reptiles
D) studying the environmental pressures on developmental stages such as the tadpole
E) a fossil comparison of organisms from the Devonian era
Answer: C

32) A recent report has indicated several conclusions about comparisons of our genome with that of Neanderthals. This report concludes, in part, that, at some period in evolutionary history, there was an admixture of the two genomes. This is evidenced by
A) some Neanderthal sequences not found in humans.
B) a small number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences.
C) Neanderthal Y chromosomes preserved in the modern population of males.
D) mitochondrial sequences common to both groups.
Answer: B


33. Types of DNA sequences in the human genome.

The pie chart in Figure represents the relative frequencies of the following in the human genome:
I. repetitive DNA unrelated to transposons
II. repetitive DNA that includes transposons
III. unique noncoding DNA
IV. introns and regulatory sequences
V. exons

Which region is occupied by exons only (V)?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A


34. Types of DNA sequences in the human genome.

The pie chart in Figure 21.1 represents the relative frequencies of the following in the human genome:
I. repetitive DNA unrelated to transposons
II. repetitive DNA that includes transposons
III. unique noncoding DNA
IV. introns and regulatory sequences
V. exons
Which region includes Alu elements and LI sequences?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: E

35, See Fig


Shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse.
The movement of these blocks suggests that
A) during evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to their original positions.
B) DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent.
C) sequences represented have duplicated at least three times.
D) chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes.
E) higher mammals have more convergence of gene sequences related in function.
Answer: D


36. shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse.

Which of the following represents another example of the same phenomenon as that shown in Figure 
A) the apparent centric fusion between two chromosome pairs of primates such as chimps to form the ancestor of human chromosome 2
B) the difference in the numbers of chromosomes in five species of one genus of birds
C) the formation of several pseudogenes in the globin gene family subsequent to human divergence from other primates
D) the high frequency of polyploidy in many species of angiosperms
Answer: A

37. Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical sequences. A classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human chromosomes 11 and 16.
How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another?
A) by normal meiotic recombination
B) by normal mitotic recombination between sister chromatids
C) by transcription followed by recombination
D) by chromosomal translocation
E) by deletion followed by insertion
Answer: D

38. Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical sequences. A classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human chromosomes 11 and 16.

Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow for this?
A) exon shuffling
B) intron activation
C) pseudogene activation
D) differential translation of mRNAs
E) differential gene regulation over time
Answer: E

39) Bioinformatics includes all of the following except
A) using computer programs to align DNA sequences.
B) analyzing protein interactions in a species.
C) using molecular biology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.
D) developing computer-based tools for genome analysis.
E) using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems.
Answer: C

40) One of the characteristics of retrotransposons is that
A) they code for an enzyme that synthesizes DNA using an RNA template.
B) they are found only in animal cells.
C) they generally move by a cut-and-paste mechanism.
D) they contribute a significant portion of the genetic variability seen within a population of gametes.
E) their amplification is dependent on a retrovirus.
Answer: A

41) Homeotic genes
A) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.
B) are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
C) are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
D) encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.
E) are responsible for patterning during plant development.
Answer: A

42) Two eukaryotic proteins have one domain in common but are otherwise very different. Which of the following processes is most likely to have contributed to this similarity?
A) gene duplication
B) RNA splicing
C) exon shuffling
D) histone modification
E) random point mutations

Answer: C

SUBSTANSI GENETIKA GRADE 5

1. Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to
A) insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid.
B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with restriction enzyme Y into the plasmid.
C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.
D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X.
E) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid.
Answer: C

2) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B) by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C) by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D) by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E) by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
Answer: A

3) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
A) I, II, IV, III, V
B) II, III, V, IV, I
C) III, II, IV, V, I
D) III, IV, V, I, II
E) IV, V, I, II, III
Answer: C

4) A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a BAC, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that
A) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes.
B) bacteria translate polycistronic messages only.
C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
D) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA.
E) bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA.
Answer: C

5) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using
A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide.
Answer: C

6) Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning?
A) They easily form colonies.
B) They can remove exons from mRNA.
C) They do not have plasmids.
D) They are eukaryotic cells.
E) Only yeast cells allow the gene to be cloned.
Answer: D

7) The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in
A) BACs.
B) recombinant viral RNA.
C) individual wells.
D) DNA-RNA hybrids.
E) radioactive eukaryotic cells.
Answer: A

8) Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements?
A) centromeres only
B) telomeres only
C) origin of replication only
D) centromeres and telomeres only
E) centromeres, telomeres, and an origin of replication
Answer: E

9) Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?
1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA.
3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.
A) 2, 1, 4
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 3, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 4
Answer: A

10) A researcher needs to clone a sequence of part of a eukaryotic genome in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would be able to satisfy these requirements by using which of the following vectors?
A) a bacterial plasmid
B) BAC to accommodate the size of the sequence
C) a modified bacteriophage
D) a human chromosome
E) a YAC with appropriate cellular enzymes
Answer: E
11) A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate?
A) a plasmid
B) a typical bacteriophage
C) a BAC
D) a plant virus
E) a large polypeptide
Answer: C

12) Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because
A) it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better" nematode, which is resistant to disease.
B) it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about.
C) the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness.
D) a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates.
E) a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms.
Answer: D

13) To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A) the shotgun approach
B) electroporation followed by recombination
C) introducing a plasmid into the cell
D) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
E) transcription and translation
Answer: B

14) The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that
A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells.
B) only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell.
C) YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.
D) YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: C

15) Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase
Answer: E

16) Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?
A) DNA fragments are too small to use individually.
B) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA.
C) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small.
D) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone.
E) It is important to have multiple copies of DNA in the case of laboratory error.
Answer: B

17) Pax-6 is a gene that is involved in eye formation in many invertebrates, such as Drosophila. Pax-6 is found as well in vertebrates. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. This information suggests which of the following?
A) Pax-6 genes are identical in nucleotide sequence.
B) PAX-6 proteins have identical amino acid sequences.
C) Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry.
D) PAX-6 proteins are different for formation of different kinds of eyes.
E) PAX-6 from a mouse can function in a fly, but a fly's Pax-6 gene cannot function in a mouse.
Answer: C

18) Why are BACs preferred today rather than bacteriophages for making genomic libraries?
A) The BAC carries more DNA.
B) The BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements.
C) Larger BACs are easier to store.
D) The BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements, and larger BACs are easier to store.
E) The BAC carries more DNA, the BAC can carry entire genes and their regulatory elements, and larger BACs are easier to store.
Answer: E

19) The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
A) it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler.
B) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR.
C) it binds more readily than other polymerases to primer.
D) it has regions that are complementary to primers.
E) All of these are correct.
Answer: A

20) Why might a laboratory be using dideoxy nucleotides?
A) to separate DNA fragments
B) to clone the breakpoints of cut DNA
C) to produce cDNA from mRNA
D) to sequence a DNA fragment
E) to visualize DNA expression
Answer: D

21) In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?
A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis.
B) The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
C) The probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
D) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis and the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
E) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
Answer: E

22) Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment
D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
Answer: A

23) DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper?
A) to attach the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate
B) to separate the two complementary DNA strands
C) to transfer only the DNA that is of interest
D) to prepare the DNA for digestion with restriction enzymes
E) to separate out the PCRs
Answer: A

24) DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they
A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome.
B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells.
C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once.
D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time.
E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes.
Answer: C

25) Which of the following describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression?
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR
Answer: C

26) Which of the following uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR
Answer: E

27) RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful?
A) to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B) to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C) to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D) to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E) to raise the concentration of a desired protein
Answer: B

28) A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A) recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B) use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C) replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D) transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
E) attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated
Answer: A

29) Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity?
A) Northern blotting
B) use of RNAi
C) in vitro mutagenesis
D) in situ hybridization
E) restriction fragment analysis
Answer: C

30) Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which of the following questions would not be answered with this process?
A) What is the function of gene 432 in this species of annelid?
B) What will happen in this insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to be translated?
C) Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans?
D) Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results?
E) Is the gene on Drosophila chromosome 2L at this locus responsible for part of its production of nitrogen waste?
Answer: C

31) In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, correlation is sought between
A) lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population.
B) single nucleotide polymorphisms found only in persons with a particular disorder.
C) single nucleotide polymorphisms found in families with a particular introns sequence.
D) single nucleotide polymorphisms in two or more adjacent genes.
E) large inversions that displace the centromere.
Answer: B

32) For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The researchers will be looking for
A) a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples.
B) a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating.
C) a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
D) a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid.
E) a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the same population.
Answer: C

33) Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins?
A) cell cloning
B) therapeutic cloning
C) use of adult stem cells
D) embryo transfer
E) organismal cloning
Answer: E

34) In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?
A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe
D) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
E) isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent
Answer: D

35) Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
B) use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
C) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
E) abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction
Answer: C

36) Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A) Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells.
B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many.
C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning.
D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
E) No embryos would be destroyed in the process of therapeutic cloning.
Answer: B

37) Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?
A) They can differentiate into many cell types.
B) They make up the majority of cells of the tissue from which they are derived.
C) They can continue to replicate for an indefinite period.
D) They can provide enormous amounts of information about the process of gene regulation.
E) One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
Answer: B

38) A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?
A) The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
B) Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts.
C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
D) The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes.
E) The nonstem cells have lost the promoters for more genes.
Answer: A

39) In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning?
A) Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
B) Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
C) Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs.
D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
Answer: D

40) The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why?
A) The environment, as well as genetics, affects phenotypic variation.
B) Fur color genes in cats are influenced by differential acetylation patterns.
C) Cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon activation
D) X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns.
E) The telomeres of the parent's chromosomes were shorter than those of an embryo.
Answer: D

41) In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells?
A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
B) The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D) An adenovirus vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into adult cells.
E) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
Answer: A

42) Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems?
I. the possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce nonpancreatic cells
II. the failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas
III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals

A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) all of them
Answer: E

43) Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?
A) production of human insulin
B) production of human growth hormone
C) production of tissue plasminogen activator
D) genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines
E) creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body
Answer: E

44) Genetically engineered plants
A) are more difficult to engineer than animals.
B) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
C) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
D) are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
E) are banned throughout the world.
Answer: B

45) Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?
A) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
B) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
C) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned.
E) Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated.
Answer: A

46) One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) to bone marrow cells of a child with SCID, and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child. What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy?
A) The engineered bone marrow cells from this patient can be used for any other SCID patient.
B) The ADA-introduced allele causes all other ADA-negative cells to die.
C) The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow.
D) No vector is required to introduce the allele into ADA-negative cells.
E) The immune system fails to recognize cells with the variant gene.
Answer: C

47) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.
C) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
D) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
E) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
Answer: D

48) As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, Which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue?
A) use of genotype information to provide positive identification of criminals
B) using technology to identify genes that cause criminal behaviors
C) the need to legislate for the protection of the privacy of genetic information
D) discrimination against certain racial groups because of major genetic differences
E) alteration of human phenotypes to prevent early disease
Answer: C


49) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure ?

A) ligase
B) transcriptase
C) a restriction enzyme
D) RNA polymerase
E) DNA polymerase
Answer: C


50) The segment of DNA shown in Figure 20.2 has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments? 


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: B

51. The DNA profiles that follow represent four different individuals.


Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?
A) B is the child of A and C.
B) C is the child of A and B.
C) D is the child of B and C.
D) A is the child of B and C.
E) A is the child of C and D.
Answer: B


52) Which of the following statements is most likely true?

A) D is the child of A and C.
B) D is the child of A and B.
C) D is the child of B and C.
D) A is the child of C and D.
E) B is the child of A and C.
Answer: B


53) Which of the following are probably siblings?
A) A and B
B) A and C
C) A and D
D) C and D
E) B and D
Answer: D

54. A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.

Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow
A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline.
B) only in the broth containing both antibiotics.
C) in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin.
D) in all four types of broth.
E) in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only.
Answer: D

55. A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.

Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in
A) the nutrient broth only.
B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only.
C) the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth.
D) all four types of broth.
E) the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.
Answer: E

56. A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.

Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
A) the nutrient broth only
B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
C) the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
D) the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
E) all three broths
Answer: A

57.  A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.

Why might they be conducting such an experiment?
A) to find the location of this gene in the human genome
B) to prepare to isolate the chromosome on which the gene of interest is found
C) to find which of the students has which alleles
D) to collect population data that can be used to assess natural selection
E) to collect population data that can be used to study genetic drift
Answer: C

58. A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.

Their next two steps, in order, should be
A) use of a fluorescent probe for the gene sequence, then electrophoresis.
B) electrophoresis of the fragments followed by autoradiography.
C) electrophoresis of the fragments, followed by the use of a probe.
D) use of a ligase that will anneal the pieces, followed by Southern blotting.
E) use of reverse transcriptase to make cDNA, followed by electrophoresis.
Answer: C

A group of six students has taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used a restriction enzyme known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest.

59) Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate?
A) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function.
B) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region.
C) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene.
D) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites."
E) Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene.
Answer: B

60. CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.

Which of the following would be a reasonably efficient technique for confirming the diagnosis of CML?
A) searching for the number of telomeric sequences on chromosome 22
B) looking for a Ph' chromosome in a peripheral blood smear
C) enzyme assay for thymine kinase activity
D) FISH study to determine the chromosomal location of all chromosome 22 fragments
E) identification of the disease phenotype in review of the patient's records
Answer: D

61. CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.

Why would Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease?
A) It reverses the chromosomal translocation.
B) It eliminates the Ph' chromosome.
C) It removes Ph'-containing progenitor cells.
D) The drug inhibits the replication of the affected chromosome.
E) The drug inhibits the specific thymine kinase receptor.
Answer: E

62. CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a thymine kinase receptor. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early.

One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?
A) prevention of transmission of plant allergens to the vaccine recipients
B) prevention of vaccine-containing plants being consumed by insects
C) use of plant cells to translate non-plant-derived mRNA
D) inability of the human digestive system to accept plant-derived protein
E) the need to cook all such plants before consuming them
Answer: A

63. Pharmacogenetics is an increasingly important discipline that uses genetic information to tailor the prescription of drug treatments to individuals. In the case of chemotherapy for breast cancer, for example, different patients need and/or respond to different treatments.

Patients whose tumors are HER-2 positive respond to herceptin whereas other patients do not. Patients whose tumors have estrogen receptors will be best served if
A) their estrogen receptors are blocked by using RNAi.
B) their estrogen release is activated and/or elevated.
C) the estrogen receptors are blocked by other molecules that can use the same receptors.
D) they are given herceptin as well as estrogen.
E) they are given a complete hysterectomy.
Answer: C

64. Pharmacogenetics is an increasingly important discipline that uses genetic information to tailor the prescription of drug treatments to individuals. In the case of chemotherapy for breast cancer, for example, different patients need and/or respond to different treatments.

Breast tumor biopsy specimens can be typed for a number of gene expression patterns. Together, these can provide risk analysis for the likely aggressive growth and metastasis of the tumor. How can this most help the physician and patient?
A) Some patients want to know as much as possible.
B) This can help them to decide whether and what kind of chemotherapy is warranted.
C) This can help them decide whether the tumor should be removed.
D) Some physicians may use the information to decide what to do, but not tell the patient.
E) This can help to aggregate health statistics.
Answer: B

65) Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A) restriction enzymeanalysis of RFLPs
B) DNA ligasecutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
) DNA polymerasepolymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
D) reverse transcriptaseproduction of cDNA from mRNA
E) electrophoresisseparation of DNA fragments
Answer: B

66) Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
A) plant genes do not contain introns.
B) more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
C) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
D) genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection.
E) plant cells have larger nuclei.
Answer: C

67) A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing?
A) RFLP analysis
B) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C) electroporation
D) gel electrophoresis
E) Southern blotting
Answer: B

68) DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present?
A) production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism
B) production of microbes that can metabolize toxins
C) introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes
D) prenatal identification of genetic disease alleles
E) genetic testing for carriers of harmful alleles
Answer: C

69) In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to
A) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
B) the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
C) a SNP marker.
D) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
E) a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene.
Answer: D

70) Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?
A) It could be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction.
B) It could be used to create a complete genomic library.
C) It was produced from mRNA using reverse transcriptase.
D) It could be used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain.
E) It lacks the introns of the human genes.
Answer: B

71) Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of
A) post-transcriptional processing.
B) electroporation.
C) post-translational processing.
D) nucleic acid hybridization.
E) restriction fragment ligation.
Answer: A

72) Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?

A) AAGG
TTCC

B) AGTC
TCAG

C) GGCC
CCGG

D) ACCA
TGGT

E) AAAA
TTTT

Answer: C

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