Friday, September 26, 2014

SOAL SISTEM EKSKRESI LEVEL DASAR

1) A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was mistakenly placed in fresh water would likely show that it died because
A) it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions.
B) it was so hyperosmotic to the fresh water that it could not osmoregulate.
C) the sea star's kidneys could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the fresh water.
D) its contractile vacuoles ruptured.
E) its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize.
Answer: B

2) Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely
A) found in freshwater lakes and streams.
B) marine.
C) amphibious.
D) found in arid terrestrial environments.
E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture.
Answer: B

3) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment.
A) hyperosmotic; freshwater
B) isotonic; freshwater
C) hyperosmotic; saltwater
D) isoosmotic; saltwater
E) hypoosmotic; saltwater
Answer: D

4) Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are
A) hyperosmotic.
B) hypoosmotic.
C) isoosmotic.
D) hyperosmotic and isoosmotic.
E) hypoosmotic and isoosmotic.
Answer: C

5) The fluid with the highest osmolarity is
A) distilled water.
B) plasma in birds.
C) plasma in mammals.
D) seawater in a tidal pool.
E) estuarine water.
Answer: D

6) Birds that live in marine environments and thus lack access to fresh drinking water
A) osmoregulate without using a transport epithelium for this purpose.
B) drink seawater and secrete excess ions through their kidneys only.
C) drink seawater and secrete excess ions mainly through their nasal salt glands.
D) have plasma that is isoosmotic to ocean water.
E) obtain water by eating only osmoregulating prey.
Answer: C

7) Osmoconforming sharks take in water, as needed,
A) by migrating to freshwater rivers to drink fresh water.
B) via osmosis, as their body cells are slightly hyperosmotic to seawater.
C) via active transport of water across the cells on their gills.
D) by water diffusion from seawater, which is hyperosmotic to the fluids in their cells.
E) by selective transport of water molecules across the wall of the gut.
Answer: B

8) A human who has no access to fresh water but is forced to drink seawater instead
A) will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life.
B) will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
C) will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload.
D) will find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst.
E) will risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours.
Answer: B

9) Many marine and freshwater bony fish achieve osmoregulation via
A) loss of water through the gills.
B) gain of salt through the gills.
C) loss of water in the urine.
D) no drinking of water.
E) gain of water through food.
Answer: E

10) Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to seawater, so they are considered by many to be osmoconformers. Nonetheless, these sharks osmoregulate at least partially by
A) using their gills and kidneys to rid themselves of sea salts.
B) monitoring dehydration at the cellular level with special gated aquaporins.
C) tolerating high urea concentrations that balance internal salt concentrations to seawater osmolarity.
D) synthesizing trimethylamine oxide, a chemical that binds and precipitates salts inside cells.
E) possessing a special adaptation that allows their cells to operate at an extraordinarily high salt concentration.
Answer: C

11) The necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a freshwater fish that died after being placed accidentally in saltwater would likely show that
A) loss of water by osmosis from cells in vital organs resulted in cell death and organ failure.
B) high amounts of salt had diffused into the fish's cells, causing them to swell and lyse.
C) the kidneys were not able to keep up with the water removal necessary in this hyperosmotic environment, creating an irrevocable loss of homeostasis.
D) the gills became encrusted with salt, resulting in inadequate gas exchange and a resulting asphyxiation.
E) brain cells lysed as a result of increased osmotic pressure in this hyperosmotic environment, leading to death by loss of autonomic function.
Answer: A

12) Urea is produced in the
A) liver from NH₃ and CO₂.
B) liver from glycogen.
C) kidneys from glucose.
D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids.
E) bladder from uric acid and H₂O.
Answer: A

13) Urea is
A) insoluble in water.
B) more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates.
Answer: C

14) Which nitrogenous waste has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
A) ammonia
B) ammonium ions
C) urea
D) uric acid
Answer: D

15) Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that include
A) lots of fresh water flowing across the gills of a fish.
B) lots of seawater, such as a bird living in a marine environment.
C) lots of seawater, such as a marine mammal (e.g., a polar bear).
D) a terrestrial environment, such as that supporting crickets.
E) a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats.
Answer: A

16) Among vertebrate animals, urea
A) is made in the kidneys and immediately excreted.
B) is added to the air in the lungs to be exhaled, along with carbon dioxide.
C) is made in the liver by combining two ammonia molecules with one carbon dioxide.
D) is made in the pancreas and added to the intestinal contents, along with bile salts, for excretion.
E) is rarely the nitrogenous waste of choice.
Answer: C

17) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is
A) ammonia.
B) ammonium.
C) urea.
D) uric acid.
Answer: D

18) Excessive formation of uric acid crystals in humans leads to
A) a condition called diabetes, where excessive urine formation occurs.
B) a condition of insatiable thirst and excessive urine formation.
C) gout, a painful inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints.
D) the absence of urea in the urine.
E) osteoarthritis, an inevitable consequence of aging.
Answer: C

19) Ammonia
A) is soluble in water.
B) can be stored in the body as a precipitate.
C) has low toxicity relative to urea.
D) is metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea.
E) is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects.
Answer: A

20) The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
A) urea can be exchanged for Na+.
B) urea is less toxic than ammonia.
C) urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia.
D) urea does not affect the osmolar gradient.
E) less nitrogen is removed from the body.
Answer: B

21) The primary nitrogenous waste excreted by birds is
A) ammonia.
B) nitrate.
C) nitrite.
D) urea.
E) uric acid.
Answer: E

22) Which nitrogenous waste requires hardly any water for its excretion?
A) amino acids
B) urea
C) uric acid
D) ammonia
E) nitrogen gas
Answer: C

23) In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of
A) starch and cellulose.
B) triglycerides and steroids.
C) proteins and nucleic acids.
D) phospholipids and glycolipids.
E) fatty acids and glycerol.
Answer: C

24) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid
A) is readily soluble in water.
B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products.
C) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing body mass.
D) excretion allows birds to live in desert environments.
Answer: C

25) Among the following choices, the most concentrated urine is excreted by
A) frogs.
B) kangaroo rats.
C) humans.
D) desert tortoises.
E) birds.
Answer: B

26) Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes?
A) filtration
B) ultrafiltration
C) selective reabsorption
D) secretion
E) active transport
Answer: C

27) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in
A) flatworms.
B) earthworms.
C) insects.
D) vertebrates.
E) cnidarians.
Answer: A

28) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in
A) earthworms.
B) flatworms.
C) insects.
D) jellyfish.
E) sea stars.
Answer: C

29) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of a freshwater flatworm is based on the operation of
A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.
Answer: A

30) Freshwater flatworms form a urine that is typically
A) of high solute concentration, in order to conserve body fluids.
B) of very low volume, in order to conserve body fluids.
C) of high solute concentration and very low volume, in order to conserve body fluids.
D) of high solute concentration and of high volume, matching their normal fluid uptake.
E) of low solute concentration and of high volume, matching their normal fluid uptake.
Answer: E

31) The osmoregulatory process called secretion refers to the
A) formation of filtrate at an excretory structure.
B) reabsorption of nutrients from a filtrate.
C) selective elimination of excess ions and toxins from body fluids.
D) formation of an osmotic gradient along an excretory structure.
E) expulsion of urine from the body.
Answer: C

32) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an earthworm is based on the operation of
A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.
Answer: B

33) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an insect is based on the operation of
A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.
Answer: C

34) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid?
A) mice and birds
B) insects and birds
C) lions and horses
D) humans and frogs
E) fish and turtles
Answer: B

35) Choose a pair that correctly associates the mechanism for osmoregulation or nitrogen removal with the appropriate animal.
A) metanephridiumflatworm
B) Malpighian tubulefrog
C) kidneyinsect
D) flame bulbsnake
E) direct cellular exchangemarine invertebrate
Answer: E

36) An excretory system that is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high hydrostatic pressure is the
A) flame bulb system of flatworms.
B) protonephridia of rotifers.
C) metanephridia of earthworms.
D) Malpighian tubules of insects.
E) kidneys of vertebrates.
Answer: E

37) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
A) results from active transport.
B) transfers large molecules as easily as small ones.
C) is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred.
D) is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
E) usually includes the transfer of red blood cells into Bowman's capsule.
Answer: D

38) Within a normally functioning kidney, blood can be found in
A) the vasa recta.
B) Bowman's capsule.
C) the loop of Henle.
D) the proximal tubule.
E) the collecting duct.
Answer: A

39) A person with alkalosis will likely excrete urine that has abnormally high levels of
A) bicarbonate ions.
B) sodium ions.
C) glucose.
D) ammonia.
E) NaOH.
Answer: B

40) The filtrate in the renal pelvis enters directly from
A) the loop of Henle.
B) the collecting duct.
C) Bowman's capsule.
D) the proximal tubule.
E) the glomerulus.
Answer: B

41) Juxtamedullary nephrons can concentrate salt effectively in the renal medulla because of their long
A) loops of Henle.
B) distal convoluted tubules.
C) Bowman's capsules.
D) proximal convoluted tubules.
E) glomeruli.
Answer: A

42) The filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule of the human does not normally include
A) ions.
B) glucose.
C) plasma proteins.
D) amino acids.
E) dissolved gasses.
Answer: C

43) Human urine is usually more acidic than most other body fluids because
A) hydrogen ions are actively moved into the filtrate.
B) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion.
C) excreted plasma proteins are nearly all acidic ions.
D) excreted amino acids are in abundance.
E) potassium and sodium exchange generates lots of acidity.
Answer: A

44) The osmolarity of human urine
A) can be four times as great as normal osmolarity of human plasma.
B) is always exactly equal to plasma osmolarity.
C) is always less than plasma osmolarity.
D) is always greater than plasma osmolarity.
E) is determined primarily by the concentration of glucose.
Answer: A

45) A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of all body organs is that
A) it stores the body's excess fats.
B) it has membranes of varying permeability to water.
C) it operates an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps.
D) it is the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients.
E) it has an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle.
Answer: C

46) Low selectivity of solute movement is a characteristic of
A) salt pumping to control osmolarity.
B) H+ pumping to control pH.
C) reabsorption mechanisms along the proximal tubule.
D) filtration from the glomerular capillaries.
E) secretion along the distal tubule.
Answer: D

47) If ATP production in a human kidney was suddenly halted, urine production would
A) come to a complete halt.
B) decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma.
C) increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
D) increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma.
E) decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
Answer: C

48) Compared to wetland mammals, water conservation in mammals of arid regions is enhanced by having more
A) juxtamedullary nephrons.
B) Bowman's capsules.
C) ureters.
D) podocytes.
E) urinary bladders.
Answer: A

49) Processing of filtrate in the proximal and distal tubules
A) achieves the sorting of plasma proteins according to size.
B) achieves the conversion of toxic ammonia to less toxic urea.
C) maintains homeostasis of pH in body fluids.
D) regulates the speed of blood flow through the nephrons.
E) reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic balance.
Answer: C

50) In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle
A) are the largest epithelial cells in the body.
B) are not in contact with interstitial fluid.
C) have plasma membranes of low permeability to water.
D) have 50% of their cell mass made of smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
E) are not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes.
Answer: C

51) The typical osmolarity of human blood is
A) 30 mosm/L.
B) 100 mosm/L.
C) 200 mosm/L.
D) 300 mosm/L.
E) 500 mosm/L.
Answer: D

52) Trauma to the human kidney could result in a urinary filtrate containing an abnormally high level of
A) fatty acids.
B) glucose.
C) salts.
D) erythrocytes.
E) vitamins.
Answer: D

53) When stimulated by aldosterone, the reabsorption of Na+ is increased along
A) the loop of Henle.
B) the collecting duct.
C) Bowman's capsule.
D) the proximal tubule.
E) the distal tubule.
Answer: E

54) Increased ADH secretion is likely after
A) drinking lots of pure water.
B) sweating-induced dehydration increases plasma osmolarity.
C) ingestion of ethanol (drinking alcoholic drinks).
D) eating a small sugary snack.
E) blood pressure is abnormally high.
Answer: B

55) After blood flow is artificially reduced at one kidney, you would expect that kidney to secrete more of the hormone known as
A) erythropoietin.
B) angiotensinogen.
C) renin.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
E) atrial natriuretic peptide.
Answer: C

56) After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of
A) increased aldosterone production.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
D) increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule.
E) the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity.
Answer: C

57) Osmoregulatory adjustment via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system can be triggered by
A) sleeping for one hour.
B) severe sweating on a hot day.
C) eating a bag of potato chips.
D) eating a pizza with olives and pepperoni.
E) drinking several glasses of water.
Answer: B

58) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) functions at the cellular level by
A) stimulating the reabsorption of glucose through channel proteins.
B) triggering the synthesis of an enzyme that makes the phospholipid bilayer more permeable to water.
C) causing membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids.
D) causing an increase in the number of aquaporin molecules of collecting duct cells.
E) decreasing the speed at which filtrate flows through the nephron, leading to increased reabsorption of water.
Answer: D

59) ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis through which of the following ways?
A) ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood and RAAS regulates the volume of the blood.
B) ADH regulates the osmolarity of the blood by altering renal reabsorption of water, and RAAS maintains the osmolarity of the blood by stimulating Na+ reabsorption.
C) ADH and RAAS work antagonistically; ADH stimulates water reabsorption during dehydration and RAAS causes increased excretion of water when it is in excess in body fluids.
D) both stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone, which increases both blood volume and pressure via its receptors in the urinary bladder.
E) by combining at the receptor sites of proximal tubule cells, where reabsorption of essential nutrients takes place.
Answer: B


60, Use the following structural formulas to identify the following items



Which of the following is excreted readily by aquatic animals because of its high solubility in the respiratory medium?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A

61. Use the following structural formulas to identify the following items

 

Which of the following is synthesized by mammals, most amphibians, sharks, and some bony fishes, and has lower toxicity than its nitrogenous substrate?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: B

62. Use the following structural formulas to identify the following items


Which of the following is excreted as a paste by land snails, insects, birds, and many reptiles, because of its solubility and toxicity properties?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: C

63) In a laboratory experiment with three groups of students, one group drinks pure water, a second group drinks an equal amount of beer, and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution, all during the same time period. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. Which groups are expected to have the greatest and least amounts of urine, respectively?
A) Beer drinkers have the most; salt solution drinkers have the least.
B) Salt solution drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
C) Water drinkers have the most; beer drinkers have the least.
D) Beer drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
E) There will be no significant difference between these groups.
Answer: A

64) Unlike an earthworm's metanephridia, a mammalian nephron
A) is intimately associated with a capillary network.
B) forms urine by changing fluid composition inside a tubule.
C) functions in both osmoregulation and excretion.
D) receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid.
E) has a transport epithelium.
Answer: D

65) Which process in the nephron is least selective?
A) filtration
B) reabsorption
C) active transport
D) secretion
E) salt pumping by the loop of Henle
Answer: A

66) Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?
A) a vampire bat
B) a salmon in fresh water
C) a marine bony fish
D) a freshwater bony fish
E) a shark inhabiting freshwater Lake Nicaragua
Answer: C

67) The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following except
A) diffusion of salt from the thin segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
B) active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb.
C) the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons.
D) diffusion of urea from the collecting duct.
E) diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
Answer: E

68) Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary nephrons in which of the following species?
A) a river otter
B) a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest
C) a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
D) a mouse species living in a desert
E) a beaver
Answer: D

69) African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?
A) Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B) Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C) The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D) Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.
E) Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.

Answer: B

SOAL SISTEM IMMUN LEVEL DASAR

1) Innate immunity
A) is activated immediately upon infection.
B) depends on a newly infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens.
D) is found only in vertebrate animals.
E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells.
Answer: A

2) Acidity in human urine is an example of
A) cell-mediated immune responses.
B) antibody activation.
C) acquired immunity.
D) adaptive immunity.
E) innate immunity.
Answer: E

3) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by
A) its plasma cells.
B) its immunoglobulins.
C) its antibodies.
D) its antimicrobial peptides.
E) its B cells.
Answer: D

4) Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immunity include all of the following except
A) neutrophils.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) natural killer cells.
Answer: D

5) The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells.
Answer: A

6) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is
A) an interferon.
B) lymphatic fluid.
C) histamine.
D) mucus.
E) sodium ions.
Answer: C

7) A systemic inflammatory response that is often life-threatening is
A) mild fever.
B) aches and dull pain.
C) septic shock.
D) high blood pressure.
E) increased white blood cell count.
Answer: C

8) The eyes and the respiratory tract are both protected against infections by
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) the secretion of complement proteins.
C) the release of slightly alkaline secretions.
D) the secretion of lysozyme onto their surfaces.
E) interferons produced by immune cells.
Answer: D

9) Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initiated when
A) the microbe survives the acidic environment of the stomach and resists lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
B) the chemotactic messengers released by the microbe do not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
C) there is a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and fight these microbes.
D) the microbes release chemical messengers that make them resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduces the pH of the stomach sufficiently so that ingested microbes are not destroyed.
Answer: A

10) The complement system is
A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity.
B) a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes.
Answer: D

11) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal selection by antigens.
Answer: A

12) Cave art by early humans recognized the existence of the major signs of inflammation. The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation that might appear in such early human art is
A) heat, pain, and redness.
B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue.
C) swelling and pain.
D) antibody-producing cells.
E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain.
Answer: E

13) Ancient peoples sought to identify the indicators of inflammation because
A) seeing such signs would be cause for their seeking out a healer in their community.
B) the presence of the signs of inflammation in a patient could be a condemnation of the healer.
C) the ancients probably knew of plant derivatives that could reduce the pain of inflammation.
D) the presence of these signs suggests that healing was taking place; otherwise, the patient would likely die.
E) the signs of inflammation served as a caution to keep people away from the patient.
Answer: D

14) The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the lymphocytes and the interferons.
Answer: D

15) Inflammatory responses typically include
A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
Answer: B

16) Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin
A) inactivate the erythrocytes.
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells.
C) stimulate release of interferons.
D) stimulate natural killer cell activity.
E) activate a group of proteins called complement.
Answer: E

17) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes
A) complement.
B) lysozyme.
C) mucus.
D) neutrophils.
E) dendritic cells.
Answer: B

18) In some insects, such as Drosophila, fungal cell wall elements can activate the protein Toll, which
A) acts as a receptor that, when activated, signals synthesis of antimicrobial peptides.
B) functions directly to attack the fungi presented to it.
C) produces antimicrobial peptides by interaction with chitin.
D) secretes special recognition signal molecules that identify specific pathogens.
E) causes some hemocytes to phagocytize the pathogens.
Answer: A

19) Mammals have Toll-like receptors (TLRs) that can recognize a kind of macromolecule that is absent from vertebrates but present in/on certain groups of pathogens, including viral
A) lipopolysaccharides.
B) double-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) glycoproteins.
E) phospholipids.
Answer: C

20) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in their permeability, producing
A) redness and heat only.
B) swelling only.
C) pain.
D) redness, heat, and swelling.
E) all of the signs of a major infection.
Answer: D

21) Septic shock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response to
A) certain bacterial infections.
B) specific forms of viruses.
C) the presence of natural killer cells.
D) a fever of >103°F in adults.
E) increased production of neutrophils.
Answer: A

22) Infection by a bacterium that has elements on its surface that enhance its resistance to lysozyme will likely result in
A) destruction of the bacterium by NK cells.
B) successful reproduction of the bacterium and continued progression of the disease.
C) removal of the bacterium by dendritic cells and its concentration in lymph nodes.
D) the infected individual's humoral immunity becoming the only route of infection response.
E) lymphocytes migrating from the thymus to attack the bacterium.
Answer: B

23) Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.
Answer: B

24) Bacterial infection in a previously uninfected house cat would most quickly activate its
A) Toll-like receptors that bind to lipopolysaccharides.
B) memory cells to produce antibodies.
C) plasma cells to produce antigens.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) humoral immune responses.
Answer: A

25) A key part of the humoral immune response is
A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.
Answer: B

26) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
A) antibodies.
B) antigens.
C) natural killer cells.
D) double-stranded RNA.
E) immunoglobulins.
Answer: B

27) An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen.
Answer: D

28) B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that
A) are active only in lymph nodes.
B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells.
C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma.
D) bind to antigens presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.
E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells.
Answer: D

29) Within a differentiated B cell, the rearrangement of DNA sequences between variable regions
and joining regions is accomplished by
A) polyadenylase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) epitopase.
E) recombinase.
Answer: E

30) Clonal selection of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to production of
A) large numbers of neutrophils.
B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized.
C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors.
D) long-lived erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen.
E) short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen.
Answer: E

31) Antigens are
A) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump.
B) proteins embedded in B cell membranes.
C) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains.
D) foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies.
E) proteins released during an inflammatory response.
Answer: D

32) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
A) lack class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces.
B) lack humoral immunity.
C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.
D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.
E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.
Answer: D

33) Clonal selection implies that
A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
B) antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C) only certain cells can produce interferon.
D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
Answer: B

34) Clonal selection is an explanation for how
A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged.
C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies.
D) HIV can disrupt the immune system.
E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
Answer: C

35) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
A) memory cells.
B) macrophages.
C) stem cells.
D) B cells.
E) T cells.
Answer: A

36) The MHC is important in a T cell's ability to
A) distinguish self from nonself.
B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens.
C) identify specific bacterial pathogens.
D) identify specific viruses.
E) recognize differences among types of cancer.
Answer: A

37) A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder in his
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) natural killer cells.
D) T cells.
E) macrophages.
Answer: D

38) The activation of helper T cells is likely
A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
C) when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell.
D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test.
E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens.
Answer: A

39) An immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule, of whatever class, with regions symbolized as C or V, H or L, has a light chain made up of
A) one C region and one V region.
B) three C regions and one V region.
C) one H region and one L region.
D) three H regions and one L region.
E) two C regions and two V regions.
Answer: A

40) The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to
A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription.
B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules.
C) DNA rearrangements.
D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells.
E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I.
Answer: C

41) Immunological memory accounts for
A) the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself.
B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause worse disease than others.
C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines.
D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased.
E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with MHC antigens.
Answer: D

42) The function of antibodies is to
A) inject toxins into living pathogens.
B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites.
C) release perforins to disrupt infected cells.
D) act as Toll-like receptors.
E) mark pathogenic cells for destruction.
Answer: E

43) This type of immunity is present only when a newborn infant is being fed by actively nursing on its mother and ends when nursing ends.
A) innate immunity
B) active immunity
C) passive immunity
D) cell-mediated immunity
E) adaptive immunity
Answer: C

44) Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because
A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases.
B) flu can generate anaphylactic shock.
C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second year.
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells.
E) flu leads to autoimmune disorders.
Answer: D

45) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells involves
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.
Answer: A

46) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) B cells
Answer: A

47) The cells involved in innate immunity, whose absence increases the chances of developing malignant tumors, are
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) natural killer cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) B cells.
Answer: B

48) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells.
A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released
E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis
Answer: B

49) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is
A) lysozyme production.
B) phagocytosis by neutrophils.
C) antibody production by plasma cells.
D) histamine release by basophils.
E) lysis by natural killer cells.
Answer: C

50) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.

I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.

A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V
Answer: E

51) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell.
B) cytotoxic T cell.
C) natural killer cell.
D) CD8 cell.
E) helper T cell.
Answer: E

52) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
A) respond to T-independent antigens.
B) lyse tumor cells.
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
D) interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
E) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
Answer: E

53) CD4 and CD8 are
A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells.
B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells.
C) T-independent antigens.
D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with MHC molecules.
E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity.
Answer: D

54) T cells of the immune system include
A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells.
B) cytotoxic and helper cells.
C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells.
D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells.
Answer: B

55) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
A) B cells produce IgE antibodies.
B) B cells release cytokines.
C) helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
E) helper T cells release cytokines.
Answer: E

56) Normal immune responses can be described as polyclonal because
A) blood contains many different antibodies and antigens.
B) construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
C) multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell.
D) diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
E) macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in a normal immune response.
Answer: D

57) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other
A) in the way they are produced.
B) in their heavy-chain structure.
C) in the type of cell that produces them.
D) by the antigenic determinants that they recognize.
E) by the number of carbohydrate subunits they have.
Answer: B

58) When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from
A) the multivalence of the antibody having at least two binding regions.
B) disulfide bridges between the antigens.
C) complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
D) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
E) denaturation of the antibodies.
Answer: A

59) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by
A) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes.
B) antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes.
C) the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
D) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes and antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes only.
E) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes, antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes, and the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
Answer: D

60) The primary function of humoral immunity is
A) to defend against fungi and protozoa.
B) to reject transplanted tissues.
C) to protect the body against cells that become cancerous.
D) to protect the body against extracellular pathogens.
E) to defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
Answer: D

61) Naturally acquired passive immunity results from the
A) injection of vaccine.
B) ingestion of interferon.
C) placental transfer of antibodies.
D) absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes.
E) injection of antibodies.
Answer: C

62) In active immunity, but not passive immunity, there is
A) acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B) proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C) the transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
D) the requirement for direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E) the requirement of secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
Answer: D

63) Jenner's successful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus is due to the fact that
A) the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B) the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C) cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D) there are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
E) cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus.
Answer: D

64) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A) vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin.
B) injection of antibodies to the toxin.
C) injection of interleukin-1.
D) injection of interleukin-2.
E) injection of interferon.
Answer: B

65) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that
A) the surface antigens of the pathogen not change.
B) a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies takes place.
C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified.
D) the pathogen has only one epitope.
E) the MHC molecules are heterozygous.
Answer: A

66) A diseased patient is exposed to an unknown agent while out of the country. The patient's blood is found to have a high proportion of lymphocytes with CD8 surface proteins in her blood, a likely result of
A) the patient having encountered a bacterial infection which elicited CD8+ T cells.
B) the disease having been caused by a multicellular parasite, such as can be encountered in polluted water sources.
C) the CD8 proteins having been discharged from these lymphocytes to lyse the infected cells.
D) a viral infection eliciting proliferation of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
E) the CD8 proteins having "marked" the surface of cells that accumulate after the infection is over and signal patient recovery.
Answer: D

67) The switch of one B cell from producing one class of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen is due to
A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen.
B) the rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B cells.
C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response.
D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells.
E) the rearrangement of immunoglobulin heavy-chain C region DNA.
Answer: E

68) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because
A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways.
B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II.
C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene.
D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories.
E) once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.
Answer: C

69) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because
A) even though Jane's blood type is a match to Bob's, her MHC proteins may not be a match.
B) a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change.
C) for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D) Jane's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E) Bob's immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant.
Answer: A

70) Infection with HIV typically
A) increases the level of helper T cells for the first year after infection.
B) eliminates all T cells immediately.
C) leads to an immediate decrease in the number of HIV in the blood.
D) alters mitochondrial but not genomic DNA sequences.
E) is found in B cells but not in T cells.
Answer: A

71) The transfusion of type A blood to a person who has type O blood would result in
A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.
C) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type.
D) no reaction because type O is a universal donor.
E) no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies.
Answer: B

72) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules.
B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response.
C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will not.
D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.
Answer: A

73) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus as
A) an allergy.
B) an immunodeficiency.
C) an autoimmune disease.
D) an antigenic variation.
E) a cancer.
Answer: C

74) A patient who undergoes a high level of mast cell degranulation, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a typical allergy that can be treated by antihistamines.
C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft.
D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system.
E) anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen.
Answer: E

75) An example of a pathogen that undergoes rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation is
A) the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins.
B) the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency.
C) human papilloma virus, which can remain latent for several years.
D) the causative agent of the autoimmune disease known as rheumatoid arthritis.
E) multiple sclerosis, which attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system.
Answer: A

76) The ability of some viruses to remain inactive (latent) for a period of time is exemplified by
A) influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years.
B) herpes simplex viruses (oral or genital) whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in those not infected by HIV.
D) the virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times in their lives.
E) myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease that blocks muscle contraction from time to time.
Answer: B

77) Most newly emerging diseases result in
A) greater severity as there are more and more occurrences of the infection.
B) major pandemics, spreading the infection far and wide in the population.
C) the waning of the disease, due to evolutionary selection for resistant hosts and milder pathogens.
D) a destruction of the host's immune system and eventual cancer.
E) no discoverable relationship with other pathogens in the same or related species.
Answer: C

78) Preventing the appearance of the symptoms of an allergy attack would be the likely result of
A) blocking the attachment of the IgE antibodies to the mast cells.
B) blocking the antigenic determinants of the IgM antibodies.
C) reducing the number of helper T cells in the body.
D) reducing the number of cytotoxic cells.
E) reducing the number of natural killer cells.
Answer: A

79) A patient complaining of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift should first be treated with
A) a vaccine.
B) complement.
C) sterile pollen.
D) antihistamines.
E) monoclonal antibodies.
Answer: D

80) A patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have which of the following in common?
A) an increase in cytotoxic T cell number
B) suffering from anaphylactic shock
C) risking development of an autoimmune disease
D) suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity
E) an increase in the levels of IgE
Answer: E
81

Mutant fruit flies that make only one antimicrobial peptide were tested for survival after infection with Neurospora crassa fungi or with Micrococcus luteus bacteria.

81) The results shown in the graphs support the hypothesis that
A) adding the defensin gene to such mutants protects them from fungal infection.
B) adding the drosomycin gene to such mutants protects them from fungal infection.
C) wild-type flies with the full set of genes for antimicrobial peptides are highly susceptible to these infective agents.
D) the presence of any single antimicrobial peptide protects against both infective agents.
E) even the wild-type flies rarely, if ever, survive for five days.
Answer: B


82) According to the graph, naive B cells will produce effector cells
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 0 and 7 days and between 7 and 14 days.
E) between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.
Answer: A

83) According to the graph, naive memory cells will be produced
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 35 and 42 days.
E) both between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.
Answer: E

84) According to the graph, antibodies will be produced
A) between 3 and 7 days.
B) between 14 and 21 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 14 and 21 days and between 42 and 56 days.
E) both between 3 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.
Answer: E

85) Study the table. The mother could exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus in
A) Case 1 only.
B) Case 3 only.
C) Cases 1 and 2 only.
D) Cases 1, 2, and 3.
E) It cannot be determined from the data given.
Answer: A

86) In Cases 1 and 2 in the table, the mothers would be able, if needed, to supply blood to the newborn even seven to nine months after birth; the same would not be true for Case 3. This is because
A) the fetus in Case 3 would provoke an immune response in the mother that would carry over after the birth.
B) the newborn in Case 3 would soon be able to make antibodies to the B antigen of the mother.
C) newborn children, until about age 2, do not make appreciable antibodies, except against Rh+ antigen.
D) passive immunity would have worn off for the third newborn, but not for the other two.
E) this difference is based on which of the mothers has been nursing her children, not on blood antigens.
Answer: B


87) Study the table. Giving the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby would be a wise precaution in
A) Case 1 only.
B) Case 3 only.
C) Cases 1 and 2 only.
D) Cases 1, 2, and 3.
E) It cannot be determined from the data given.
Answer: A


88) After a long and cold winter, Jim was excited to start exploring the woods behind his new home. His first adventure included exposure to poison ivy without any reaction. A month later, though, a second walk through the woods was not so great, since two days later Jim had a terrible rash that lasted for weeks. The fact that the rash took two days to develop indicates that this immune response was an example of
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) innate immunity.
D) the activation of Toll-like receptors.
E) the activation of the complement system.
Answer: B

An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.

89) Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves the
A) helper T cells.
B) memory B cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) natural killer cells.
Answer: D

90. An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick.
The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with
A) complement.
B) antibodies.
C) class I MHC molecules.
D) class II MHC molecules.
E) dendritic cells.
Answer: C

91. Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.
Select the description that likely indicates a child with Bruton's disease.
A) baby girl Denise, with low level of antibody response to streptococcal infection
B) baby boy John, with immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
C) baby boy Jeff, with no plasma cells following infection by bacterial pneumonia
D) baby girl Susan, with no evidence of a thymus gland
E) baby boy Matt, with very low circulating antigens
Answer: C

92. Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.

Bruton's disorder will likely include
A) the failure of heavy-chain gene rearrangement in B cells.
B) the failure to incorporate CD4 receptors into cell membranes.
C) an underexpression of the gene for the β chain of the T cell receptor.
D) an underexpression of the gene for the CD8 receptor molecule.
E) the inability of the bone marrow cells to interact with MHC molecules.
Answer: A

93 . Immunodeficiencies can be genetic in origin, and two examples are Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, an X-linked disorder, and DiGeorge syndrome, caused by a deletion from chromosome 22. Bruton's disorder results in underdeveloped B cells, whereas DiGeorge syndrome results in a missing or seriously underdeveloped thymus.
Assume that a DGS-like phenotype was produced in a specific "gene-knockout" mouse, one lacking expression of HA3, a Hox gene known to be involved in developmental regulation in the mouse.
The phenotype of the HA3 knockout can be ascertained by
A) a bone marrow biopsy.
B) an assay for environmental agents known to cause birth defects.
C) a chest X-ray.
D) the measurement of the proportion of CD4 cells to total lymphocytes.
E) an autopsy examination of the adrenal glands.
Answer: D

94) Which of these is not part of insect immunity?
A) enzyme activation of microbe-killing chemicals
B) activation of natural killer cells
C) phagocytosis by hemocytes
D) production of antimicrobial peptides
E) a protective exoskeleton
Answer: B

95) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody?
A) the disulfide bridge
B) the heavy-chain constant regions only
C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
D) the light-chain constant regions only
E) the tail
Answer: C

96) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?
A) B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity.
B) B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells.
C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.
D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response.
E) B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.
Answer: C

97) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.
B) An antigen can have different epitopes.
C) A pathogen makes more than one antigen.
D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.
E) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule.
Answer: D

98) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?
A) the set of antibodies produced
B) the set of MHC molecules produced
C) the set of T cell antigen receptors produced
D) the susceptibility to a particular virus
E) the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive
Answer: B


99) Vaccination increases the number of
A) different receptors that recognize a pathogen.
B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen.
C) epitopes that the immune system can recognize.
D) macrophages specific for a pathogen.
E) MHC molecules that can present an antigen.
Answer: B

100) Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?
A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins
B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules
C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
D) infecting and killing helper T cells
E) building the viral shell from host proteins

Answer: C

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