Friday, September 26, 2014

SOAL KOORDINASI SARAF LEVEL DASAR

1) A simple nervous system
A) must include chemical senses, mechanoreception, and vision.
B) includes a minimum of 12 effector neurons.
C) has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center.
D) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center.
E) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors.
Answer: E

2) Most of the neurons in the human brain are
A) sensory neurons.
B) motor neurons.
C) interneurons.
D) auditory neurons.
E) peripheral neurons.
Answer: C

3) The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the
A) dendritic region.
B) axon hillock.
C) axon.
D) cell body.
E) axon terminals.
Answer: D

4) In certain large animals, this type of neuron can extend beyond 1 meter in length.
A) glial cell in the brain
B) a sensory neuron
C) an interneuron
D) a glial cell at a ganglion
E) a neuron that controls eye movements
Answer: B

5) The somatic nervous system can alter the activities of its targets, the skeletal muscle fibers, because
A) it is electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles.
B) its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles.
C) its signals reach the muscles via the blood.
D) its light pulses activate contraction in the muscles.
E) it is connected to the internal neural network of the muscles.
Answer: B

6) The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called
A) the axon hillock.
B) the dendrite.
C) the synapse.
D) the cell body.
E) the glia.
Answer: C

7) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by
A) the dendritic membrane.
B) the presynaptic membrane.
C) axon hillocks.
D) cell bodies.
E) ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: B

8) In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by
A) the dendritic membrane.
B) the presynaptic membrane.
C) axon hillocks.
D) cell bodies.
E) ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: A

9) In the communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle,
A) the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell.
B) the motor neuron is considered the postsynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the presynaptic cell.
C) action potentials are possible on the motor neuron but not the skeletal muscle.
D) action potentials are possible on the skeletal muscle but not the motor neuron.
E) the motor neuron fires action potentials but the skeletal muscle is not electrochemically excitable.
Answer: A

10) For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in
A) the depolarization of the neuron.
B) the hyperpolarization of the neuron.
C) the replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions.
D) the replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions.
E) the neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions.
Answer: B

11) Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also
A) fully permeable to sodium ions.
B) slightly permeable to sodium ions.
C) fully permeable to calcium ions.
D) impermeable to sodium ions.
E) highly permeable to chloride ions.
Answer: B

12) The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves
A) sodium and potassium ions into the cell.
B) sodium and potassium ions out of the cell.
C) sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell.
D) sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
E) sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria.
Answer: D

13) A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is
A) HCO₃-.
B) Cl-.
C) Ca++.
D) Na+.
E) K+.
Answer: E

14) The membrane potential that exactly offsets an ion's concentration gradient is called the
A) graded potential.
B) threshold potential.
C) equilibrium potential.
D) action potential.
E) inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
Answer: C

15) ATP hydrolysis directly powers the movement of
A) K+ out of cells.
B) Na+ out of cells.
C) Na+ into cells.
D) Ca++ into cells.
E) Cl- into cells.
Answer: B

16) Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a "resting" neuron are that the channels
A) are always open, but the concentration gradients of ions frequently change.
B) are always closed, but ions move closer to the channels during excitation.
C) open and close depending on stimuli, and are specific as to which ion can traverse them.
D) open and close depending on chemical messengers, and are nonspecific as to which ion can traverse them.
E) open in response to stimuli, and then close simultaneously, in unison.
Answer: C

17) Opening all of the sodium channels, with all other ion channels closedwhich is an admittedly artificial settingon an otherwise typical neuron should move its membrane potential to
A) -90 mV.
B) -70 mV.
C) 0 mV.
D) +30 mV.
E) +62 mV.
Answer: E

18) A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by
A) increasing its membrane's permeability to Na+.
B) decreasing its membrane's permeability to H+.
C) decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl-.
D) increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca++.
E) increasing its membrane's permeability to K+.
Answer: E

19) Self-propagation and refractory periods are typical of
A) action potentials.
B) graded hyperpolarizations.
C) excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
D) threshold potentials.
E) resting potentials.
Answer: A

20) The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its
A) permitting passage by positive but not negative ions.
B) permitting passage by negative but not positive ions.
C) ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport.
D) binding with only one type of neurotransmitter.
E) permitting passage only to a specific ion.
Answer: E

21) A "resting" motor neuron is expected to
A) release lots of acetylcholine.
B) have high permeability to sodium ions.
C) be equally permeable to sodium and potassium ions.
D) exhibit a resting potential that is more negative than the "threshold" potential.
E) have a higher concentration of sodium ions on the inside of the cell than on the outside.
Answer: D

22) The "threshold" potential of a membrane
A) is the point of separation from a living to a dead neuron.
B) is the lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce.
C) is the minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials.
D) is the minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels.
E) is the peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential.
Answer: D

23) Action potentials move along axons
A) more slowly in axons of large than in small diameter.
B) by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane.
C) by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the axonal membrane.
D) more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons.
E) by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions.
Answer: D

24) A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to
A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.
B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential.
C) prevent graded potentials.
D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules.
E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.
Answer: B

25) After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
A) the opening of sodium activation gates.
B) the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
C) a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
D) a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump.
E) the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels.
Answer: B

26) The "undershoot" phase of after-hyperpolarization is due to
A) slow opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
B) sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.
C) rapid opening of voltage-gated calcium channels.
D) slow restorative actions of the sodium-potassium ATPase.
E) ions that move away from their open ion channels.
Answer: B

27) Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential; thus, we state that the membrane is briefly
A) hyperexcitable.
B) refractory.
C) fully depolarized.
D) above threshold.
E) at the equilibrium potential.
Answer: B

28) An action potential can start in the middle of an axon and proceed in both opposite directions when
A) the neuron is an inhibitory neuron and operating normally.
B) only the middle section of the axon has been artificially stimulated by an electrode.
C) the dendritic region fires an action potential.
D) it is in its typical refractory state.
E) its membrane potential is above the threshold.
Answer: B

29) The primary means by which a neuron can communicate to a second neuron is by
A) the frequency of its action potentials.
B) the peak of the depolarization phase of an action potential.
C) the peak of the undershoot/hyperpolarization of an action potential.
D) varying how much neurotransmitter it releases for a given action potential.
E) remaining in the depolarization phase of the action potential for an extended interval.
Answer: A

30) In the sequence of permeability changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is
A) the activation of the sodium-potassium "pump."
B) the inhibition of the sodium-potassium "pump."
C) the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) the closing of voltage-gated potassium channels.
E) the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.
Answer: C

31) Saltatory conduction is a term applied to
A) conduction of impulses across electrical synapses.
B) an action potential that skips the axon hillock in moving from the dendritic region to the axon terminal.
C) rapid movement of an action potential reverberating back and forth along a neuron.
D) jumping from one neuron to an adjacent neuron.
E) jumping from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron.
Answer: E

32) The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the
A) dendrite.
B) axon hillock.
C) node of Ranvier.
D) postsynaptic membrane.
E) presynaptic membrane.
Answer: E

33) Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via
A) osmosis.
B) active transport.
C) diffusion.
D) transcytosis.
E) exocytosis.
Answer: E

34) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in
A) thin, non-myelinated neurons.
B) thin, myelinated neurons.
C) thick, non-myelinated neurons.
D) thick, myelinated neurons.
Answer: D

35) Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by
A) the movement of sodium and potassium ions from the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic neuron.
B) impulses traveling as electrical currents across the gap.
C) impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the gap.
D) impulses ricocheting back and forth across the gap.
E) the movement of calcium ions from the presynaptic into the postsynaptic neuron.
Answer: C

36) One possible disadvantage to a nerve net is that it might conduct impulses in two directions from the point of the stimulus. Most of the synapses in vertebrates conduct information in only one direction
A) as a result of the nodes of Ranvier.
B) as a result of voltage-gated sodium channels found only in the vertebrate system.
C) because vertebrate nerve cells have dendrites.
D) because only the postsynaptic cells can bind and respond to neurotransmitters.
E) because the sodium-potassium pump moves ions in one direction.
Answer: D

37) The release of acetylcholine from the terminal of a motor neuron is most directly linked to
A) the entry of potassium into the axon terminal.
B) the exit of potassium from the axon terminal.
C) the entry of sodium into the axon terminal.
D) the exit of sodium from the axon terminal.
E) the entry of calcium into the axon terminal.
Answer: E

38) The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it is an example of
A) a voltage-gated sodium channel.
B) a voltage-gated potassium channel.
C) a ligand-gated sodium channel.
D) a second-messenger-gated sodium channel.
E) a chemical that inhibits action potentials.
Answer: C

39) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to
A) potassium ions.
B) sodium ions.
C) calcium ions.
D) ATP.
E) all neurotransmitter molecules.
Answer: A

40) The following steps refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical synapse.

1. Neurotransmitter binds with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane.
2. Calcium ions rush into neuron's cytoplasm.
3. An action potential depolarizes the membrane of the axon terminal.
4. The ligand-gated ion channels open.
5. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.

Which sequence of events is correct?

A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
B) 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1
C) 3 → 2 → 5 → 1 → 4
D) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5
E) 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
Answer: C

41) The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by
A) its active transport across the presynaptic membrane.
B) its diffusion across the presynaptic membrane.
C) its active transport across the postsynaptic membrane.
D) its diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane.
E) its degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme on the postsynaptic membrane.
Answer: E

42) Adjacent neurons with direct (non-neurotransmitter) action potential transfer are said to have electrical synapses, based on the presence of
A) tight junctions at their point of contact.
B) gap junctions at their point of contact.
C) leaky junctions at their point of contact.
D) anchoring junctions at their point of contact.
E) desmosomes at their point of contact.
Answer: B

43) Ionotropic receptors are found at synapses operated via
A) ligand-gated ion channels.
B) second-messenger-gated ion channels.
C) electrical synapses.
D) inhibitory, but not excitatory, synapses.
E) excitatory, but not inhibitory, synapses.
Answer: A

44) An example of ligand-gated ion channels is
A) the spreading of action potentials in the heart.
B) acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
C) cAMP-dependent protein kinases.
D) action potentials on the axon.
E) graded hyperpolarization.
Answer: B

45) An example of the action of metabotropic receptors is when
A) voltage-gated ion channels open.
B) voltage-gated ion channels close.
C) acetylcholine-gated sodium channels open.
D) cAMP-linked ion channels open.
E) the undershoot/after-hyperpolarization occurs.
Answer: C

46) Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory are expected to
A) act independently of their receptor proteins.
B) close potassium channels.
C) open sodium channels.
D) close chloride channels.
E) hyperpolarize the membrane.
Answer: E

47) When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of
A) temporal summation.
B) spatial summation.
C) tetanus.
D) the refractory state.
E) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization.
Answer: B

48) When several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an action potential, this is an example of
A) temporal summation.
B) spatial summation.
C) tetanus.
D) the refractory state.
E) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization.
Answer: A

49) Assume that a single IPSP has a negative magnitude of -0.5 mV at the axon hillock, and that a single EPSP has a positive magnitude of +0.5 mV. For a neuron with an initial membrane potential of -70 mV, the net effect of the simultaneous arrival of six IPSPs and two EPSPs would be to move the membrane potential to
A) -72 mV.
B) -71 mV.
C) -70 mV.
D) -69 mV.
E) -68 mV.
Answer: A

50) Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the
A) axonal membrane.
B) axon hillock.
C) dendritic membrane.
D) mitochondrial membrane.
E) presynaptic membrane.
Answer: C

51) Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated?
A) axonal membranes
B) axon hillocks
C) dendritic membranes
D) mitochondrial membranes
E) presynaptic membranes
Answer: B

52) Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by
A) initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells.
B) causing molecular changes in the cells.
C) affecting ion-channel proteins.
D) altering the permeability of the cells.
E) All of these options are correct.
Answer: E

53) The primary neurotransmitter from the parasympathetic system that influences its autonomic targets is
A) acetylcholine.
B) adenosine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) adrenaline.
E) dopamine.
Answer: A

54) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: E

55) The major excitatory neurotransmitter of the human brain is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: C

56) A neuropeptide that might function as a natural analgesic is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: C

57) An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: E

58) The botulinum toxin reduces the synaptic release of
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: A

59) The heart rate decreases in response to the arrival of
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: A

60) A chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic vesicles is
A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
Answer: D


61) The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label



A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Answer: D


62) The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label


A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Answer: B


63) The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label


A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Answer: A


64) The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened at label


A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Answer: C


65) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label


A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Answer: E

66) Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then
A) no action potential will be initiated.
B) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward the axon terminal.
C) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock.
D) two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the hillock.
E) an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon terminal.
Answer: D

67) Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions into "common sense" neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to
A) increased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
B) decreased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
C) more action potentials in your "common sense" neurons.
D) more EPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
E) fewer IPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
Answer: B

68) What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes?
A) There is a net diffusion of Na+ out of the cell.
B) The equilibrium potential for K+ (EK) becomes more positive.
C) The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive.
D) The neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.
E) The cell's inside is more negative than the outside.
Answer: C

69) A common feature of action potentials is that they
A) cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize.
B) can undergo temporal and spatial summation.
C) are triggered by a depolarization that reaches the threshold.
D) move at the same speed along all axons.
E) require the diffusion of Na+ and K+ through ligand-gated channels to propagate.
Answer: C

70) Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) the nodes of Ranvier
C) the postsynaptic membrane
D) synaptic vesicle membranes
E) the myelin sheath
Answer: C

71) Temporal summation always involves
A) both inhibitory and excitatory inputs.
B) synapses at more than one site.
C) inputs that are not simultaneous.
D) electrical synapses.
E) multiple inputs at a single synapse.
Answer: E

72) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.
B) The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.
D) Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
E) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.
Answer: B

73) Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
A) Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.
B) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane.
C) The postsynaptic cell produces an action potential.
D) Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft.
E) An EPSP or IPSP is generated in the postsynaptic cell.

Answer: A

SOAL PERTUMB & PERKEMB HEWAN LEVEL DASAR

1) The structure of the Drosophila gene called Tinman is similar to a gene in humans that also
A) promotes ear development.
B) specifies the location of the heart.
C) determines structures in the eyes.
D) specifies limb elongation points.
E) filters lymphatic fluid.
Answer: B

2) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of
A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.
Answer: C

3) Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like
A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine.
B) resting during halftime of a basketball game.
C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven.
D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch.
E) dropping a rock off a cliff and watching it land in the valley below.
Answer: A

4) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo
A) mitosis.
B) depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) the acrosomal reaction.
Answer: E

5) Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by
A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol.
B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen.
C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol.
D) exposure to the low pH of the uterus.
E) depletion of its ATP supplies.
Answer: C

6) The formation of the fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of
A) bicarbonate ions.
B) calcium ions.
C) hydrogen ions.
D) potassium ions.
E) sodium ions.
Answer: B

7) A sea urchin zygote undergoes its first cell division
A) 5 seconds after fertilization.
B) 30 minutes after fertilization.
C) 90 minutes after fertilization.
D) 4 hours after fertilization.
E) 24 hours after fertilization.
Answer: C

8) A human zygote undergoes its first cell division
A) 5 seconds after fertilization.
B) 30 minutes after fertilization.
C) 90 minutes after fertilization.
D) 4 hours after fertilization.
E) 24 hours after fertilization.
Answer: E

9) A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is
A) the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization.
B) sea urchin eggs are produced by meiosis, but human eggs are produced by mitosis.
C) sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger than human sperm.
D) sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy because only in sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs.
E) sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm but human zygotes get their mitochondria from the egg.
Answer: A

10) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief
A) mitosis.
B) membrane depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) acrosomal reaction.
Answer: B

11) During fertilization, the acrosomal contents
A) block polyspermy.
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg.
D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.
Answer: C

12) The vitelline layer of the sea urchin egg
A) is outside of the fertilization membrane.
B) releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction.
C) has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins.
D) is first visible only when organogenesis is nearly completed.
E) is a mesh of proteins crossing through the cytosol of the egg.
Answer: C

13) In a newly fertilized egg, the vitelline layer
A) opens the egg's nuclear membrane to allow haploid sperm DNA to enter.
B) hardens to form a protective cover.
C) secretes hormones that enhance steroidogenesis by the ovary.
D) reduces the loss of water from the egg and prevents desiccation.
E) provides most of the nutrients used by the zygote.
Answer: B

14) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences?
A) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
B) cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → first cell division
C) cortical reaction → acrosomal reaction → first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins
D) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
E) acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → first cell division
Answer: E

15) The cortical reaction functions directly in the
A) formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell.
E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
Answer: A

16) In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer lasting "slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are
A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white.
B) the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein.
C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane.
D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction.
E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome.
Answer: D

17) In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the
A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D) fertilization envelope would not be formed.
E) zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Answer: D

18) In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the
A) acrosomal reaction.
B) completion of spermatogenesis.
C) initial cleavage.
D) activation of the egg.
E) completion of gastrulation.
Answer: C

19) Fertilization normally
A) reinstates diploidy.
B) follows gastrulation.
C) is required for parthenogenesis.
D) merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell.
E) precedes ovulation.
Answer: A

20) In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the
A) fertilization membrane.
B) zona pellucida.
C) cytosol of the egg.
D) nucleus of the egg.
E) mitochondria of the egg.
Answer: B

21) Compared to sea urchin eggs, those of mammals
A) complete the fertilization process more rapidly.
B) have not already completed meiosis at the time of ovulation.
C) have a more distinct animal pole.
D) have a more distinct vegetal pole.
E) have no requirement for the cortical reaction.
Answer: B

22) A human blastomere is
A) an embryonic cell that is much smaller than the ovum.
B) an embryonic structure that includes a fluid-filled cavity.
C) that part of the acrosome that opens the egg's membrane.
D) a component of the zona pellucida.
E) a cell that contains a (degenerating) second polar body.
Answer: A

23) At the moment of sperm penetration, human eggs
A) have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the oviduct.
B) accept as many sperm as possible in order to select the one with the highest fertility.
C) are still located within the ovary.
D) have a paper-thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents desiccation.
E) are still surrounded by follicular cells.
Answer: E

24) In a developing frog embryo, most of the yolk is
A) located near the animal pole.
B) located near the vegetal pole.
C) found within the cleavage furrow.
D) found within the blastocoels.
E) distributed equally throughout the embryo.
Answer: B

25) Among these choices, the largest cell involved in frog reproduction is
A) the spermatozoon.
B) the ovum.
C) a blastomere in the vegetal pole.
D) a blastomere in the animal pole.
E) one of the products of the first cleavage.
Answer: B

26) The pattern of embryonic development in which only the cells lacking yolk subsequently undergo cleavage is called
A) arcadian development, which is typical of insects.
B) holoblastic development, which is typical of marsupial mammals.
C) meroblastic development, which is typical of humans.
D) holoblastic development, which is typical of amphibians.
E) meroblastic development, which is typical of birds.
Answer: E

27) As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the blastomeres
A) increases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
B) increases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
D) decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
E) increases as the number of the blastomeres stays the same.
Answer: C

28) During the early part of the cleavage stage in frog development, the rapidly developing cells
A) skip the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.
B) skip the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) skip the G₁ and G₂ phases of the cell cycle.
D) rapidly increase the volume and mass of the embryo.
E) skip the cytokinesis phase of the cell cycle.
Answer: C

29) The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that
A) the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B) the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole.
C) the posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole.
D) the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis.
E) the polar bodies bud from this region.
Answer: A

30) The small portion of the embryo that will become its dorsal side develops from the
A) morula.
B) primitive streak.
C) archenteron.
D) gray crescent.
E) blastocoel.
Answer: D

31) The yolk of the frog egg
A) prevents gastrulation.
B) is concentrated at the animal pole.
C) is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
D) impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
E) supports the higher rate of cleavage at the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
Answer: E

32) An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive streak must be that of
A) an insect.
B) a fish.
C) an amphibian.
D) a bird.
E) a sea urchin.
Answer: D

33) Meroblastic cleavage occurs in
A) sea urchins, but not humans or birds.
B) humans, but not sea urchins or birds.
C) birds, but not sea urchins or humans.
D) both sea urchins and birds, but not humans.
E) both humans and birds, but not sea urchins.
Answer: C

34) Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?
A) cleavage → blastula → gastrula → morula
B) cleavage → gastrula → morula → blastula
C) cleavage → morula → blastula → gastrula
D) gastrula → morula → blastula → cleavage
E) morula → cleavage → gastrula → blastula
Answer: C

35) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during
A) determination.
B) cleavage.
C) fertilization.
D) induction.
E) gastrulation.
Answer: E

36) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm.
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm.
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm.
E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm.
Answer: C

37) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then
A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote.
B) embryonic germ layers would not form.
C) fertilization would be blocked.
D) the blastula would not be formed.
E) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.
Answer: B

38) The archenteron of the developing frog eventually develops into the
A) reproductive organs.
B) blastocoel.
C) heart and lungs.
D) digestive tract.
E) brain and spinal cord.
Answer: D

39) The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the
A) nervous system.
B) liver.
C) pancreas.
D) heart.
E) kidneys.
Answer: A

40) In frog embryos, the blastopore becomes the
A) anus.
B) ears.
C) eyes.
D) nose.
E) mouth.
Answer: A

41) In a frog embryo, gastrulation
A) produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere.
B) occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere.
C) is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum.
D) proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore.
E) occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk.
Answer: D

42) The earliest developmental stage among these choices is
A) germ layers.
B) morula.
C) blastopore.
D) gastrulation.
E) invagination.
Answer: B

43) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A) The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B) The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D) The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
Answer: A

44) An open space within the gastrula is the
A) ectoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) archenteron.
D) endoderm.
E) neural crest cells.
Answer: C

45) Although it contributes no cells to the embryo, the formation of the primitive streak is guided by the structure known as the
A) endoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) ectoderm.
D) neural crest.
E) hypoblast.
Answer: E

46) The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of
A) the lip of the blastopore in the frog.
B) the archenteron in a frog.
C) polar bodies in a sea urchin.
D) the notochord in a mammal.
E) neural crest cells in a mammal.
Answer: A

47) In all vertebrate animals, development requires
A) a large supply of yolk.
B) an aqueous environment.
C) extraembryonic membranes.
D) an amnion.
E) a primitive streak.
Answer: B

48) The least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a
A) bird.
B) fish.
C) frog.
D) eutherian (placental) mammal.
E) reptile.
Answer: D

49) A primitive streak forms during the early embryonic development of
A) birds, but not frogs or humans.
B) frogs, but not birds or humans.
C) humans, but not birds or frogs.
D) birds and frogs, but not humans.
E) humans and birds, but not frogs.
Answer: E

50) Extraembryonic membranes develop in
A) mammals, but not birds or lizards.
B) birds, but not mammals or lizards.
C) lizards, but not mammals or birds.
D) mammals and birds, but not lizards.
E) mammals, birds, and lizards.
Answer: E

51) At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a
A) blastocyst.
B) gastrula.
C) fetus.
D) somite.
E) zygote.
Answer: A

52) Uterine implantation due to enzymatic digestion of the endometrium is initiated by the
A) inner cell mass.
B) endoderm.
C) chorion.
D) mesoderm.
E) trophoblast.
Answer: E

53) In placental mammals, the yolk sac
A) transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryo.
B) differentiates into the placenta.
C) becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds and protects the embryo.
D) produces blood cells that then migrate into the embryo.
E) stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta develops.
Answer: D

54) Gases are exchanged in a mammalian embryo in the
A) amnion.
B) hypoblast.
C) chorion.
D) trophoblast.
E) yolk sac.
Answer: C

55) Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced
A) early cleavage divisions.
B) determination of the polarity of the zygote.
C) differentiation of bone tissue.
D) morphogenesis.
E) organogenesis.
Answer: D

56) The migratory neural crest cells
A) form most of the central nervous system.
B) serve as precursor cells for the notochord.
C) form the spinal cord in the frog.
D) form neural and non-neural structures in the periphery.
E) form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract.
Answer: D

57) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences?
A) gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage
B) ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization
C) cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis
D) gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation
E) preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation
Answer: C

58) Changes in both cell shape and cell position occur extensively during
A) gastrulation, but not organogenesis or cleavage.
B) organogenesis, but not gastrulation or cleavage.
C) cleavage, but not gastrulation or organogenesis.
D) gastrulation and organogenesis, but not cleavage.
E) gastrulation, organogenesis, and cleavage.
Answer: E

59) Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization of the
A) nucleus.
B) cytoskeleton.
C) extracellular matrix.
D) transport proteins.
E) nucleolus.
Answer: B

60) Animal development compares to plant development in that
A) plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis.
B) animal cells, but not plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis.
C) plant cells and animal cells migrate extensively during morphogenesis.
D) neither plant cells nor animal cells migrate during morphogenesis.
E) plant cells, but not animal cells, undergo convergent extension.
Answer: B

61) Cadherins and other cell-adhesion molecules that guide cell migration are
A) steroid hormones.
B) glycoproteins.
C) fatty acids.
D) prostacyclins.
E) ribonucleic acids.
Answer: B

62) To meet a zygote's metabolic and developmental requirements,
A) maternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
B) paternal RNA and maternal proteins must be present.
C) the haploid DNA in the nucleus must be transcribed.
D) the nucleus must have hundreds of copies of every gene, allowing a high rate of gene expression.
E) the zygote must continuously undergo endocytosis of proteins to take them from its environment.
Answer: A

63) Select the choice that correctly associates the organ with its embryonic sources.
A) anterior pituitary glandmesoderm and endoderm
B) thyroid glandmesoderm and ectoderm
C) adrenal glandectoderm and mesoderm
D) skinendoderm and mesoderm
E) brainmesoderm and endoderm
Answer: C

64) The first cavity formed during sea urchin development is the
A) blastopore.
B) mouth.
C) blastocoel.
D) anus.
Answer: C

65) Human trophoblasts
A) form the inner cell mass.
B) form from ectoderm.
C) are the precursors of the mesoderm.
D) are of embryonic origin and function in embryo nutrition.
E) are of maternal origin and function in embryo gas exchange.
Answer: D

66) The embryonic precursor to the human spinal cord is the
A) notochord.
B) neural tube.
C) mesoderm.
D) archenteron.
E) set of bilateral somites.
Answer: B

67) Animal cells that are present only for a brief developmental phase will, following completion of that phase, undergo
A) diapause.
B) apoptosis
C) meiosis.
D) oxidative phosphorylation.
E) re-differentiation.
Answer: B

68) The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves, making the mass of the cells narrower and longer, is
A) convergent extension.
B) induction.
C) elongational streaming.
D) bi-axial elongation.
E) blastomere formation.
Answer: A

69) During gastrulation in frog embryos, fibronectin
A) provides an extracellular anchorage for migrating cells.
B) regulates actin-myosin interactions in the cytosol of migrating cells.
C) reduces the entry of calcium ions into migrating cells.
D) regulates mRNA movement out of the nucleus of a moving cell.
E) provides the pigment that accumulates in the primitive streak.
Answer: A

70) Which of the following is the anatomical axis that is largely symmetrical in both frogs and humans?
A) medial to lateral
B) dorsal to ventral
C) anterior to posterior
D) animal to vegetal
E) rostral to caudal
Answer: A

71) If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray crescent, then
A) the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die.
B) both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage.
C) only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally.
D) both daughter cells will develop abnormally.
E) both daughter cells will die immediately.
Answer: C

72) In humans, identical twins are possible because
A) of the heterogeneous distribution of cytoplasmic determinants in unfertilized eggs.
B) of interactions between extraembryonic cells and the zygote nucleus.
C) of convergent extension.
D) early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated.
E) the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells.
Answer: D

73) Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the primary organizer in amphibian embryos while studying the
A) medial cells between the optic cups.
B) anterior terminus of the notochord.
C) lateral margins of the neural tube.
D) posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm.
E) dorsal lip of the blastopore.
Answer: E

74) In frogs, formation of the eye lens is induced by chemical signals from
A) cells that will become the neural plate.
B) cells that are forming the inner ear.
C) an outgrowth of the developing brain.
D) both cells that will become the neural plate and cells that are forming the inner ear.
E) both cells that will become the neural plate and an outgrowth of the developing brain.
Answer: E

75) Which of the following is an adult organism that has fewer than 1,000 cells?
A) chickens, Gallus domesticus
B) African clawed frogs, Xenopus laevis
C) humans, Homo sapiens
D) fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster
E) nematodes, Caenorhabditis elegans
Answer: E

76) The developmental precursors to the gonadal tissues of C. elegans uniquely contain
A) proteins of maternal origin.
B) high concentrations of potassium ions.
C) haploid proteins.
D) T tubules for the propagation of action potentials.
E) P granules of mRNA and protein.
Answer: E

77) Two primary factors in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos are
A) light and temperature.
B) salt gradients and membrane potentials.
C) gravity and pH.
D) moisture and mucus.
E) location of sperm penetration and cortical reaction.
Answer: C

78) The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in 3-D space defines
A) pattern formation.
B) induction.
C) differentiation.
D) determination.
E) organogenesis.
Answer: A

79) If the apical ectodermal ridge is surgically removed from an embryo, it will lose
A) positional information for limb-bud pattern formation.
B) guidance signals needed for correct gastrulation.
C) unequal cytokinesis of blastomeres.
D) the developmental substrate for the gonads.
E) the developmental substrate for the kidneys.
Answer: A

80) The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
A) is composed of a single cell, in which the developmental origin of each protein has been mapped.
B) is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped.
C) has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced.
D) has about 1,000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced.
E) uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal development.
Answer: B

81. In a study of the development of frog embryos, researchers stained several early gastrulas with vital dyes and noted the locations of the dyes after gastrulation. The results are shown in the following table.

The ectoderm should give rise to tissues containing
A) yellow and purple colors.
B) purple and green colors.
C) green and red colors.
D) red and blue colors.
E) red and yellow colors.
Answer: D

82. In a study of the development of frog embryos, researchers stained several early gastrulas with vital dyes and noted the locations of the dyes after gastrulation. The results are shown in the following table.


82) The mesoderm was probably stained with a
A) blue color.
B) yellow color.
C) red color.
D) purple color.
E) green color.
Answer: B

83. In a study of the development of frog embryos, researchers stained several early gastrulas with vital dyes and noted the locations of the dyes after gastrulation. The results are shown in the following table.
The endoderm was probably stained with
A) red and yellow colors.
B) yellow and green colors.
C) green and purple colors.
D) blue and yellow colors.
E) purple and red colors.
Answer: C

84) When you slice up a pie that contains a swirled mixture of chocolate and vanilla filling, you notice that some slices have more chocolate than vanilla and that other slices have more vanilla than chocolate. This uneven distribution of chocolate and vanilla is most like the uneven distribution of
A) nuclei in a zygote.
B) nuclei in an early embryo.
C) nuclei in an egg prior to fertilization.
D) cytoplasmic determinants in a newly formed zygote.
E) cytoplasmic determinants in a baby just prior to birth.
Answer: D

85) Assume that successful reproduction in a rare salamander species, wherein all individuals are females, relies on those females having access to sperm from males of another species but that the resulting embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution from the sperm. In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for
A) morphogenesis.
B) epigenesis.
C) egg activation.
D) cell differentiation.
E) the creation of a diploid cell.
Answer: C

86) The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in
A) the formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) the production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) the release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm.
D) the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg.
E) the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
Answer: A

87) Which of the following is common to the development of both birds and mammals?
A) holoblastic cleavage
B) epiblast and hypoblast
C) trophoblast
D) yolk plug
E) gray crescent
Answer: B

88) The archenteron develops into
A) the mesoderm.
B) the blastocoel.
C) the endoderm.
D) the placenta.
E) the lumen of the digestive tract.
Answer: E

89) What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environments rather than in water?
A) extraembryonic membranes
B) yolk
C) cleavage
D) gastrulation
E) development of the brain from ectoderm
Answer: A

90) In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions,
A) the acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B) the fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C) the fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D) the fertilization envelope would not form.
E) the zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Answer: D

91) In humans, identical twins are possible because
A) cytoplasmic determinants are distributed unevenly in unfertilized eggs.
B) extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus.
C) convergent extension occurs.
D) early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated.
E) the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells.
Answer: D

92) Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo develop into nervous system tissues. This result indicates that the transplanted cells were
A) totipotent.
B) determined.
C) differentiated.
D) mesenchymal.
E) apoptotic.

Answer: B

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