SOAL BIOTEKNOLOGI 02 BIOLOGI

Materi paling akhir biologi SMA yang aplikasi diharapkan bisa menambah semangat setidaknya mengerjakan soal bioteknologi atau untuk keinginan mau melanjutkan kemana setelah jagoan biologi OK

1.  Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?

A It is isolated from a virus

B It remains active at high temperature

C It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells

D It serves as a selectable marker

ANSWER : B

2. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

A Micropropagation-In vitro production of plants in large numbers

B Callus - Unorganized mass of cells produced in tissue culture

C Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells

D Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis

ANSWER : D

3. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?

A Meristem

B Node

C Bark

D Vascular tissue

ANSWER : A

4. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of

A Silicon or Platinum

B GOLDor Tungsten

C Silver or Platinum

D Platinum or Zinc

ANSWER : B

5. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)? 

A Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers

B ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

C ori-original restriction enzyme

D rop-reduced osmotic pressure

ANSWER : B

6. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with:

A Endonucleases

B DNA ligase

C Exonucleases

D DNA polymerase

ANSWER : B

7. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in

A Protoplast fusion

B Cell culture preparation

C Protoplast isolation

D Hardening

ANSWER : A

8. Polyethylene glycol method is used for

A Energy production from sewage

B Gene transfer without a vector

C Biodiesel production

D Seedless fruit production

ANSWER : B

9. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing

A Transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases

B Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

C Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

D Transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

ANSWER : B

10. Restriction endonucleases:

A Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism

B Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis

C Are used in genetic engineering for ligation of two DNA molecules

D Are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies

ANSWER : A

11. Which of the following enzymes are used to join bits of DNA?

A DNA polymerase

B Primase

C Ligase

D Endonuclease

ANSWER : C

12. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?

A Bacillus coagulans

B Xanthomonas citri

C Clostridium septicum

D Agrobacterium tumefaciens

ANSWER : D

13. Restriction endonuclease

A Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

B Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

C Cuts the DNA molecule randomly

D Synthesizes DNA

ANSWER : B

14. Plasmid has been used as vector because :

A Both ends show replication

B It can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

C It is circular DNA which have capacity to join to eukaryotic DNA

D It has antibiotic resistance gene

ANSWER : C

15. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

A Trichoderma

B Pseudomonas

C Bacillus

D Xanthomonas

ANSWER : B

TRY AGAIN

1. A dividing and undifferentiated mass of cells is called

A Callus

B Embryo

C Explant

D Zygote

ANSWER : A

2. Advancement in genetic engineering has been possible due to the discovery of

A Oncogenes

B Transposons

C Restriction endonuclease

D Exonucleases

ANSWER : C

3. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

A Gel electrophoresis

B Spectrophotometry

C Tissue culture

D PCR

ANSWER : A

4. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to

A Degrade sewage

B Produce methane

C Obtain antibiotics

D Purify enzymes

ANSWER : D

5. Which purine is found in RNA?

A Guanine

B Cytosine

C Thymine

D Uracil

ANSWER : A

6. DNA fingerprinting was discovered by

A James Watson

B Alec Jeffreys

C Frederick Fanger

D Hargobind Khorana

ANSWER : B

7. DNA is found in

A Chromosomes

B Plastids

C Mitochondria

D All of the above

ANSWER : D

8. Dolly, The first cloned mammal, was produced by

A Parthenogenesis

B Artificial fertilization

C Replacement of zygote nucleus by somatic nucleus

D in vitro fertilization

ANSWER : C

9. Embryo culture is used for

A Establishing suspension culture

B Recovery of inter specific hybrids

C  Somatic hybridization

D Haploid production

ANSWER : B

10. First artificial gene was synthesized by

A Nirenberg

B Mendel

C Morgan

D Khorana

ANSWER : D

11. Genetic Engineering is

A plastic surgery

B addition or removal of genes

C study of extranuclear genes

D all of the above

ANSWER : B

12. Genomics is the study of

A Genes in general

B Human genes

C Genomes in general

D Human genome

ANSWER : C

13. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it? 5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3' 3' _____CTTAAG ________ 5'

A Palindromic sequence of base pairs

B Replication completed

C Deletion mutation

D Start codon at the 5' end

ANSWER : A

14. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of

A Pig

B Fish

C Mice

D Cow

ANSWER : C

15. One of the following processes involves southern blotting technique

A rDNA technology

B DNA finger printing

C production of transgenic plants

D formation of suspension culture

ANSWER : B

TRY AGAIN

1. Pada prinsipnya bioteknologi merupakan penerapan organisme hidup atau komponen seluluernya untuk menghasilkan barang dan jasa. Yang tidak termasuk organisme hidup untuk bioteknologi adalah....

A. bakteri

B. khamir

C. kapang

D. ganggang

E. manusia

2. Senyawa penting berupa metabolit sekunder yang diproduksi melalui bioteknologi dan berguna bagi bidang kesehatan adalah...

A. enzim

B. antibiotik

C. pigmen

D. vitamin

E. asam organik

3.Mikroorganisme yang digunakan dalam proses bioteknologi harus memiliki sifat-sifat tertentu, diantaranya...

A. memerlukan persyaratan niterisi tidak rumit

B. memiliki pruduktivitas yang tinggi serta sifat yang srabil.

C. tidak menghasilkan racun atau toksin sampingan yang membahayakan manusia atau lingkungan.

D. tidak merupakan mikroba patogen yang membahayakan.

E. menghasilkan produk yang bersifat alergen

4. Teknik-teknik yang digunakan untuk memanipulasi sifat organisme unggul di antaranya melalui...

A. teknik mutasi

B. kultur sel

C. kultur jaringan

D. transplantasi organ

E. teknik rekayasa genetik.

5. Alkohol dapat dibuat dengan bahan baku . murah yang berupa limbah pabrik gula yang disebut....

A. molase

B. bagase

C. nira

D. tailing

E. serat

6. Biomassa mikroba yang akan dipanen sebagai produk bioteknologi dapat ditemukan pada industri..

A. protein sel tunggal

B. obat-obatan

C. asam organik

D. susu fermentasi

E. enzim

7. Tahap-tahap kloning gen insulin dari manusia adalah sebagai berikut :

(1) isolasi gen insulin

(2) penyisipan DNA donor ke dalam vektor plasmid;

(3) pemotongan DNA menggunakan enzim restriksi endonuklease

(4) transformasi DNA ke dalam sel bakteri;

(5) deteksi gen insulin apakah mampu diekspresikan oleh bakteri.

Urutan pekerjaan yang harus dilakukan adalah....

A.   (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - (5)

B.   (1) - (3) - (2) - (4) - (5)

C.   (1) - (5) - (3) - (4) - (2)

D.   (5) - (4) - (3) - (2) - (1)

E.   (4) - (5) - (1) - (2) - (3)

8. Pengembangan bioteknologi, terutama teknologi rekayasa genetik, memerlukan penguasaan bidang ilmu, khususnya....

A. biokimia

B. biologi molekuler

C. mikrobiologi

D. genetika

E. elektronika dan instrumentasi

9. Proses kloning domba Dolly secara garis besar adalah sebagai berikut :

- sel ambing seekor domba diisolasi, kemudian diambil inti selnya;

- inti sel dimasukkan ke dalam sel telur domba lain yang telah dibuang intinya;

- sel telur tadi kemudian dipelihara di laboratorium sampai tahap tertentu

- embrio yang terbentuk ditanam ke dalam uterus domba sampai saatnya dilahirkan

Karena tanpa melalui fertilisasi, domba yang dilahirkan dari proses kloning ini memiliki sifat...

A. haploid

B. diploid

C. triploid

D.poliploidi

E. tidak tentu

10. Kecap dan tauco yang merupakan produk makanan hasil bioteknologi konvensional dapat dikelompokkan ke dalam.....

A. produk makanan bergizi

B. produk makanan hasil fermentasi

C. produk makanan hasil fermentasi alkohol

D. produk penyedap makanan

E. produk transgenik.

11. Nata d coco merupakan produk hasil fermentasi air kelapa oleh bakteri Acetobacter xylinum. Nata sebenarnya adalah....

A. selulosa

B. lemak

C. protein

D. amilum

E. asam nukleat.

12. Kelompok bakteri asam laktat yang tidak dipakai dalam industri fermentasi adalah....

A. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

B. Lactobacillus brevis

C. Streptococcus lactis

D. Streptococcus thermophilus

E. Streptococcus pneumonia

13. Tanaman tahan hama yang mampu menghasilkan racun yang dapat membunuh hama ulat dibuat  dibuat dengan cara gen cry dari bakteri....

A. Bacillus thuringiensis

B. Agrobacterium tumifaciens

C. Streptococcus thermophillus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

E. Bacillus liquifaciens

14. Enzim yang digunakan pada industri detergen adalah....

A. Enzim lipase, penghasilnya Mucor sp

B. Enzim pektinase , penghasilnya Aspergillus niger

C. enzim protease alkalis, penghasinya Bacillus licheniformis

D. Enzim protease netral, penghasilnya Bacillus amyloliquifaciens

E. Enzim protease asam, penghasilnya Mucor miebei

15. Mikroba yang tidak dapat dijadikan sebagai penyubur tanah, misalnya.....

A. bakteri penambat nitrogen

B. bakteri pelarut fosfat

C. mikoriza

D. bakteri nitrifikasi

E. bakteri denitrofikasi

16. Dalam usaha mengklon protein manusia, material dari sel manusia dimasukkan ke dalam sel bakteri. Material yang berasal dari sel manusia adalah....

A. segmen DNA yang mengkode mRNA yang ditranskripsi

B. rRNA dan tRNA yang digunakan selama proses translasi

C. protein yang mentranskripsi mRNA di initi sel.

D. protein mRNA yang ditemukan di sitoplasma

E. intron yang dilepaskan dari protein mRNA yang ditranskripsi dan belum diproses.

17. Produksi insulin dengan cara menyisipkan gen manusia penghasil insulin ke dalam sel bakteri dapat dicapai melalui proses....

A. transformasi

B. rekayasa genetika

C. kloning

D. transduksi

E. translokasi

18. Bioteknologi memungkinkan manusia memindahkan sifat-sifat organnisme yang satu keorganisme yang lainnya, meskipun berbeda tingkat klasifikasinya. Teknologi ini dapat dilaksanakan dengan menggunakan sarana....

A. sel kanker dan plasmid

B. sel kanker dan virus

C. plasmid dan virus

D. virus dan bakteri

E. bakteri dan sel kanker

19. Berikut yang berhubungan dengan organisme transgenik adalah....

A. bakteri yang menerima gen melalui konjugasi

B. manusia yang menerima gen pembekuan darah

C. tanaman paku yang tumbuh dalam kultur sel dari satu sel akar paku

D. tikus dengan gen hemoglobin kelinci

E. manusia yang menerima insulin yang dihasilkan oleh bakteri.

20. Bioteknologi yang diterapkan untuk mengubah dan meningkatkan nilai tambah pangan baru dengan bantuan mikroba dan produksi bioteknologi yang dihasilkan. Hubungan ini ditunjukkan oleh....

               Mikroba                         Produk Bioteknologi

A.     Acetobacter xylinum            keju lunak

B.     Candida utilis                       tempe

C.     Rhizopus oligosporus           protein sel tunggal

D.     Lactobacillus bulgaricus      yoghurt

E.     Penicillium camemberti        nata d coco

21. Berikut ini merupakan peran bioteknologi dalam pembiakan logam :

(1) Thiobacillus fero-ixidans tumbuh pada lingkungan yang mengandung zat-zat organik

(2) Thiobacillus fero-ixidans adalah salah satu spesies kemolitotrof

(3) Bakteri kemolitotrof memperoleh energi dari oksidasi zat-zat organik

(4) Para penambang mineral melakukan pembiakan Thiobacillus fero-ixidans untuk memisahkan logam murni.

Pernyataan yang benar adalah...

A. 1 dan 2

B. 1 dan 3

C. 1 dan 4

D. 2 dan 3

E. 2 dan 4

22. Bioteknologi, tidak selalu aman bagi lingkungan. Tanaman hasil rekayasa transgenik juga dikhawatirkan menimbulkan racun terhadap lingkungan karena......

A. membutuhkan banyak pestisida untuk membunuh hama

B. tanah menjadi tandus akibat pemakaian pupuk kimia

C. Bakteri dan jamur pembusuk meningkat jumlahnya.

D. terjadinya pencemaran gen bila menyerbuki tanaman sejenis.

E. tibulnya wabah penyakit baru yang sulit diobati

23. Suatu perkebunan membutuhkan tanaman yang memiliki kemampuan atau daya tahan terhadap penyakit dan hama. Bioteknologi yang dapat dilakukan untuk memenuhi kebutuhan tersebut adalah dengan membuat....

A. kloning dan transfer inti

B. tanaman transgenik

C. kultur jaringan

D. kloning embrio

E. hibridoma

24. Perhatikan data di bawah ini !

         Jenis Jamur                    Produksi                Peran bagi manusia

1.     Aspergillus                     A. alkohol              P. racun

2.     Saccharomyces               B. aflatoksin          Q. antibodi

3.     Rhizopus                         C. sake                   R. minuman

Dari tabel di atas yang menunjukkan hubungan yang benar antara jenis jamur, produksi dan perannya bagi manusia adalah....

A.   1 - B - P

B.   1 - B - R

C.   2 - A - P

D.   2 - B - P

E.   3 - C - P

25. Peranan gen asing di bawah ini merupakan keberhasilan rekayasa genetika, kecuali....

A. yang dimasukkan melalui plasmid terekspresi pada tumbuhan atau hewan transgenik

B. yang dimasukkan melalui plasmid akan terintegrasi dengan genom dan tanaman target

C. berkombinasi dengan genom yang terdapat dalam inti

D. turut replikasi pada tanaman atau hewan transgenik

E. mempertahankan ekspresi gen target.

DETAIL
SILAHKAN KLIK INI JIKA INGIN DETAIL 

THANKS

SOAL BIOLOGI BIOTEKNOLOGI KELAS XII

Materi paling akhir biologi SMA yang aplikasi diharapkan bisa menambah semangat setidaknya mengerjakan soal bioteknologi atau untuk keinginan mau melanjutkan kemana setelah jagoan biologi OK

1. Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control

A Nematodes

B Fungal pathogens

C Bacterial pathogens

D Insect pests

ANSWER : D

2. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for

A Enhancing shelf life

B Insect-resistance

C Drought-resistance

D Enhancing mineral content

ANSWER : B

3. The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cry IA c and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling

A Bollworm

B Roundworm

C Moth

D Fruit fly

ANSWER : A

4. Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in

A Monoclonal antibody production

B DNA fingerprinting

C Recombinant DNA technology

D Stemcell culture

ANSWER : B

5. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to

A Bollworms

B Bacterial blights

C White rusts

D Nematodes

ANSWER : D

6. Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from

A Bacteriophages

B Bacterial cells

C Plasmids

D All prokaryotic cells

ANSWER : B

7 PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of

A Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation

B Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation

C Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis

D Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing

ANSWER : C

8. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A Ligase - Molecular scissors

B Thermus aquaticus - Bt-gene

C Agrobacterium tumefaciens - Tumour

D Hind II - Plasmid vector

ANSWER : C

9 Sterilization of tissue culture medium is done by

A mixing the medium with antifungal agents

B filtering the medium through fine sieve

C autoclaving of medium at 120° for 15 min

D keeping the medium at –20°C

ANSWER : C

10. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

A Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

B Transformation of plant cells

C Disarming pathogen vectors

D DNA finger printing

ANSWER : B

11. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice

A Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

B Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones

C Give high yield but has no characteristic aroma

D Is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy

ANSWER : C

12. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother's womb and

A.   in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media

B.    the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows

C.    in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cows.

D.   from this up to eight identical twins can be produced

ANSWER : C

13. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

A 5′ CACGTA 3′; 3′ CTCAGT 5′

B 5′ CGTTCG 3′; 3′ ATGGTA 5′

C 5′ GATATG 3′; 3′ CTACTA 5′

D 5′ GAATTC 3′; 3′ CTTAAG 5′

ANSWER : D

14. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).

Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which express the desired gene.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

C Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

ANSWER : D

15. Compare the statements A and B.

Statement A: Synthesis of DNA takes place in the S-phase of interphase.

Statement B: Every chromosome, during metaphase, has two chromatids.

Choose the correct description :

A Statement A is correct and B is wrong.

B Statement A is wrong and B is correct.

C Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B.

D Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B.

ANSWER : D

TRY AGAIN

1.  The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating?

A Rheumatoid arthritis

B Chicken pox

C Diabetes mellitus

D Adenosine deaminase deficiency

ANSWER : D

2. Emasculation is related to

A Clonal selection

B Mass selection

C Pure line

D Hybridization

ANSWER : D

3. Which of the following terms is used to describe the component isolated from a plant, for in vitro culturing in the specific medium?

A Synthetic seeds

B Embryoid

C Callus

D Explant

ANSWER : D

4. Nucleic acid segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

A plasmid

B probe

C clone

D vector

ANSWER : B

5. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

A Exonuclease

B Protease

C Lipase

D Endonuclease

ANSWER : D

6. The enzyme employed for amplification of DNA during PCR is commercially obtained from

A Trichoderma reesei

B Bacillus licheniformis

C Streptococcus pyogenes

D Thermus aquaticus

ANSWER : D

7. A regulatory body working under MoEF for the release of transgenic crops is

A NBPGR

B GEAC

C NSC

D NIPGR

ANSWER : B

8. Cry1 endotoxins obtained from Bacillus Thuringiensis are effective against:

A Flies

B Mosquitoes

C Boll worms

D Nematodes

ANSWER : C

9. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector

Statements

(A) bacterium

(B) Plasmid

(C) Plasmodium

(D) Bacteriophage

Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors

A (A), (B) and (D) only

B (A) only

C (A) and (C) only

D (B) and (D) only

ANSWER : D

10. Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them

(A) The first transgenic buffalo Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched

(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules

(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology

(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host

Which are the two statements having mistakes?

A Statements (A) and (C)

B Statements (A) and (B)

C Statements (B) and (C)

D Statements (C) and (D)

ANSWER : B

11. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control

A Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively

B Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively

C Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively

D Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively

ANSWER : C

12. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein

A Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

B Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

C Is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest

D Is coded by several genes including the gene cry

ANSWER : A

13. What is true about Bt toxin?

A Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus

B The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut

C The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins

D The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication

ANSWER : B

14. Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell. Reason : Any viable plant cell can differentiate in to somatic embryos.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

C Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

ANSWER : A

15. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

A The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds

B Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes

C "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology

D "Flavr Savr" variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene which improves its taste

ANSWER : A

INTERFASE

TISSUE CULTURE

• Kultur dapat didefinisikan sebagai teknik membudidayakan jaringan agar menjadi organisme yang utuh dan mempunyai sifat yang sama dengan induknya. 
• Kultur jaringan merupakan salah satu cara perbanyakan tanaman secara vegetatif. 
• Kultur jaringan merupakan teknik perbanyakan tanaman dengan cara mengisolasi bagian tanaman seperti daun, mata tunas, serta menumbuhkan bagian-bagian tersebut dalam media buatan secara aseptik yang kaya nutrisi dan zat pengatur tumbuh dalam wadah tertutup yang tembus cahaya sehingga bagian tanaman dapat memperbanyak diri dan bergenerasi menjadi tanaman lengkap. 
• Kultur jaringan adalah serangkaian kegiatan yang dilakukan untuk membuat bagian tanaman (akar, tunas, jaringan tumbuh tanaman) tumbuh menjadi tanaman utuh (sempurna) dikondisi in vitro (didalam gelas). 

• Keuntungan dari kultur jaringan lebih hemat tempat, hemat waktu, dan tanaman yang diperbanyak dengan kultur jaringan mempunyai sifat sama atau seragam dengan induknya. 
• Contoh tanaman yang sudah lazim diperbanyak secara kultur jaringan adalah tanaman anggrek. Metode kultur jaringan dikembangkan untuk membantu memperbanyak tanaman, khususnya untuk tanaman yang sulit dikembangbiakkan secara generatif. 
• Bibit yang dihasilkan dari kultur jaringan mempunyai beberapa keunggulan, antara lain: mempunyai sifat yang identik dengan induknya, dapat diperbanyak dalam jumlah yang besar sehingga tidak terlalu membutuhkan tempat yang luas, mampu menghasilkan bibit dengan jumlah besar dalam waktu yang singkat, kesehatan dan mutu bibit lebih terjamin, kecepatan tumbuh bibit lebih cepat dibandingkan dengan perbanyakan konvensional. 
• Dasar teknik kultur jaringan adalah bahwa sel tanaman mempunyai sifat totipotensi yaitu kemampuan sel untuk tumbuh dan berkembang membentuk tanaman lengkap dalam medium aseptik yangmengandung unsur hara dan zat pengatur tumbuh yang sesuai. 

Tahapan yang dilakukan dalam perbanyakan tanaman dengan teknik kultur jaringan adalah: 

• Pembuatan media.
• Inisiasi adalah pengambilan eksplan dari bagian tanaman yang akan dikulturkan. Bagian tanaman yang sering digunakan untuk kegiatan kultur jaringan adalah tunas.
• Sterilisasi adalah bahwa segala kegiatan dalam kultur jaringan harus dilakukan di tempat yang steril, yaitu di laminar flow dan menggunakan alat-alat yang juga steril. Sterilisasi juga dilakukan terhadap peralatan, yaitu menggunakan etanol yang disemprotkan secara merata pada peralatan yang digunakan. Teknisi yang melakukan kultur jaringan juga harus steril.
• Multiplikasi adalah kegiatan memperbanyak calon tanaman dengan menanam eksplan pada media. Kegiatan ini dilakukan di laminar flow untuk menghindari adanya kontaminasi yang menyebabkan gagalnya pertumbuhan eksplan. Tabung reaksi yang telah ditanami eksplan diletakkan pada rak-rak dan ditempatkan di tempat yang steril dengan suhu kamar.
• Pengakaran adalah fase dimana eksplan akan menunjukkan adanya pertumbuhan akar yang menandai bahwa proses kultur jaringan yang dilakukan mulai berjalan dengan baik. Pengamatan dilakukan setiap hari untuk melihat pertumbuhan dan perkembangan akar serta untuk melihat adanya kontaminasi oleh bakteri ataupun jamur.
• Aklimatisasi adalah kegiatan memindahkan eksplan keluar dari ruangan aseptic ke bedeng. Pemindahan dilakukan secara hati-hati dan bertahap, yaitu dengan memberikan sungkup. 

Prinsip Dasar Kultur Jaringan

Kultur jaringan mengandung dua prinsip dasar yang jelas, yaitu :

Bahan tanam yang totipotensi 

• Konsep dasar ini mutlak ada dalam pelaksanaan kegiatan kultur jaringan karena hanya dengan adanya sifat totipotensi ini sel jaringan organ yang digunakan akan mampu tumbuh dan berkembang sesuai arah dan tujuan budidaya in vitro yang dilakukan. 
• Namun, sifat totipotensi lebih besar dimilki oleh bagian yang masih muda dan banyak dijumpai pada daerah meristem. 
• Bahan tanam yang sementara ini digunakan dalam kegiatan kultur jaringan dan sering terbukti dapat tumbuh dan berkembang adalah: 

Sel, sel biasanya ditanam dalam bentuk suspensi dengan kepadatan yang telah ditentukan.

• Protoplast, biasanya juga ditanam dalam bentuk yang telah ditentukan.
• Jaringan meristem, jaringan yang ditanam biasanya dalam bentuk potongan organ yang terdapat pada derah-daerah pertumbuhan.
• Kalus, kalus ditanam dalam bentuk massa sel yang belum terdeferensiasi dan biasanya ditanam daam media induksi untuk pertumbuhan kalus.

Organ, bahan yang paling umum dalam kegiatan kultur jaringan. 

Budidaya yang terkendali
Sifat bahan yang totipotensi saja tidak cukup untuk kesuksesan kegiatan kultur jaringan. Prinsip dasar budidaya yang terkendali ini meliputi :

Keadaan media tempat tumbuh

Lingkungan yang mempengaruhi

Keharusan sterilisasi 

Teknik kuljar secara in vitro, beberapa syarat sesuai dengan prinsip dasar kuljar yang harus diketahui antara lain :

Memilih eksplan yang baik

Untuk mendapatkan eksplan yang baik dan mudah tumbuh, dipilih bagian organ yang masih bersifat meristematik

Penggunaan medium yang cocok. Media yang biasa digunakan untuk pembuatan kuljar murni adalah PDA.

Keadaan yang aseptik. Keadaan yang aseptik ini meliputi sterilisasi eksplan, media, alat-alat, ruang steril dan ruang kultur (entkas / tempat khusus untuk menanam eksplan ke dalam medium).

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UJIAN SISTEM RESPIRASI BIOLOOGI GONZAGA

Pagi ini saya postingkan soal soal respirasi sederhana untuk persiapan mengajar maupun siswa menghadapi ujian respirasi sehingga materi respirasi ini sukses OK 

1. Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______.

A.      Glottis

B.      Trachea

C.      Epiglottis

D.      Larynx

ANSWER : C

2. The exchange of gases between inhaled air and blood is referred as ______.

A.      Cellular respiration

B.      External respiration

C.      Internal respiration

D.      Circulatory respiration

ANSWER : B

3. The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called

A.      Vital capacity

B.      Tidal volume

C.      Total lung capacity

D.      Inspiratory capacity

ANSWER : C

4. Aerobic respiratory pathway is also termed as ______ pathway.

A.      Anabolic

B.      Catabolic

C.      Creatine phosphate

D.      Amphibolic

ANSWER : D

5. The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______.

A.      Total lung capacity

B.      Vital capacity

C.      Tidal volume

D.      Ventilation rate

ANSWER : B

6. Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase?

A.      Cu

B.      Zn

C.      Fe

D.      Mg

ANSWER : B

7. The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______.

A.      Bronchi

B.      Trachea

C.      Microtrachea

D.      Eustachian tubes

ANSWER : A

8. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a - d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult

1.       Residual volume 2500 mL

2.       Vital capacity 3500 mL

3.       Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL

4.       Inspiratory capacity  4500 mL

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

A.   (1) 4500 mL, (2) 3500 mL

B.    (2) 2500 mL, (3) 4500 Ml.

C.    (3) 1200 mL, (4) 2500 mL

D.   (4) 3500 mL, (1) 1200 mL

ANSWER : D

9. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by

A.      Cubical epithelium

B.      Columnar epithelium

C.      Squamous epithelium

D.      Ciliated epithelium

ANSWER : D

10. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding trachea?

A.      It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus.

B.      It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs

C.      Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis.

D.      Tracheal rings are C-shaped

ANSWER : A

11. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A.      Tuberculosis is caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

B.      Tuberculosis is highly infectious and can be spread by airborne droplets.

C.      Tuberculosis can't be treated by antibiotics

D.      In Pulmonary Tuberculosis the elasticity of lungs is reduced.

ANSWER :  C

12. Which one of the followings is NOT correct regarding Exhalation (expiration)?

A.      Expiration is typically a passive process

B.      Exhalation starts when the expiratory muscles relax

C.      The elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air during exhalation

D.      During exhalation, elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air

ANSWER : B

13. Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx?

A.      It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea

B.      It houses the vocal cords

C.      It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea

D.      All of these are correct.

ANSWER : D

14. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

A.      One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all

B.      The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them

C.      One can breathe out air totally without oxygen

D.      One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

ANSWER : A

15. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place.

In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?

A.      B : Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly

B.      C : Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues

C.      A : alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases

D.      D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here

ANSWER : C

SOAL UJIAN KELAS XI KOLESE GONZAGA

MUSCULAR SYSTEM

1. A sarcomere

A.      is a section of a myofibril.

B.      gets shorter when it contracts.

C.      has striations.

D.      All of the choices are correct.

2. During muscular contraction

A.      actin and myosin filaments slide past each other.

B.      ATP supplies energy.

C.      calcium ions (Ca++) are involved.

D.      all of the above

3. At a neuromuscular junction,

A.      a nerve impulse causes the release of a neurotransmitter.

B.      a neurotransmitter causes calcium to be released into the muscle cell.

C.      A & B

D.      none of the above

4. Which is NOT a function of muscles?

A.      cause movement

B.      produce heat

C.      absorb nutrients

D.      maintain posture

5. A skeletal muscle cell

A.      has light and dark bands (striations).

B.      has only one nucleus.

C.      is under involuntary control.

D.      None of the above are true

6. The origin of the biceps brachii is

A.      the attachment of the muscle that remains relatively fixed during contraction.

B.      the scapula.

C.      proximal radius.

D.      A & B

7. The stages in muscle contraction include a

A.      nerve impulse reaching a neuromuscular junction.

B.      nerve impulse stimulating the release of calcium ions.

C.      actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments.

D.      all the above are true

8. The functional unit of a muscle fiber is the

A.      sarcomere.

B.      myofilament.

C.      myofibril.

D.      neuromuscular junction.

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about muscle activity.

A.      Muscles can only pull, they never push.

B.      All muscles have at least two attachments: the origin and insertion.

C.      During contraction, the muscle origin moves toward the insertion.

D.      All muscles cross at least one joint.

10. Muscle fatigue is due, in part, to the accumulation of

A.      lactic acid.

B.      citric acid.

C.      ATP.

D.      ACTH.

ANSWER

1.     D     2.     D     3.     C     4.     C      5.     A     6.     D      7.     D     8.     A     9.     C     10. A

SKELETAL SYSTEM

1. All of the following are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT

A.      support

B.      blood cell production

C.      calcium storage

D.      excretion

2. The shaft of a long bone is called

A.      epiphysis.

B.      diaphysis.

C.      periosteum.

D.      endosteum.

3. Osteoclasts

A.      deposit calcium into bone.

B.      destroy bone matrix.

C.      are a type of white blood cell.

D.      A and C are correct.

4. Fat is stored in

A.      compact bone.

B.      spongy bone.

C.      red bone marrow.

D.      yellow bone marrow.

5. All of the following are facial bones EXCEPT

A.      nasal bone

B.      maxilla

C.      mandible

D.      ethmoid bone

6. Which of the following is a cranial bone?

A.      vomer bone

B.      lacrimal bone

C.      zygomatic bone

D.      sphenoid bone

7. The bone that does not articulate with any other bone is the

A.      vomer bone.

B.      zygomatic bone.

C.      hyoid bone.

D.      ethmoid bone.

8. All of the following are bones of the thorax EXCEPT

A.      clavicle

B.      sternum

C.      true ribs

D.      false ribs

9. The pelvic girdle consists of the

A.      humerus and radius.

B.      ulna and radius.

C.      hip bones.

D.      clavicle and scapula.

10. The bone of the upper arm is the

A.      radius.

B.      ulna.

C.      humerus.

D.      femur

ANSWER

1.     D     2.     B     3.     B     4.     D      5.     D     6.     D      7.     C     8.     A     9.     C     10. C

BLOOD

1. Which of the following are functions of the blood?

A.      transportation

B.      regulation

C.      protection

D.      all of the above

2. The blood volume of an averaged sized male is

A.      3 to 4 liters.

B.      4 to 5 liters.

C.      5 to 6 liters.

D.      6 to 7 liters.

3. Which of the following belongs to agranular leukocytes?

A.      neutrophil

B.      basophil

C.      platelet

D.      monocyte

4. Which of the following cells do NOT have a nucleus?

A.      erythrocytes

B.      granulocytes

C.      leukocytes

D.      agranulocytes

5. The pigment in red blood cells that carries oxygen is

A.      erythropoietin.

B.      melatonin.

C.      hemoglobin.

D.      urobilinogen.

6. An increase in the number of white blood cells is called

A.      anemia.

B.      leukopenia.

C.      leukocytosis.

D.      polycythemia.

7. Stoppage of bleeding is called

A.      hemostasis.

B.      vascular spasm.

C.      thrombosis.

D.      coagulation.

8. Heredity deficiencies of coagulation is referred to as

A.      anemia.

B.      hemophilia.

C.      hemolysis.

D.      leukemia.

9. A blood clot transported by the blood stream is a(n)

A.      platelet plug.

B.      thrombus.

C.      embolus.

D.      thrombin clot.

10. A person with blood type A has

A.      B antigens on the red blood cells.

B.      A antibodies in the plasma.

C.      A antigens on the red blood cells.

D.      Rh antigen on the red blood cells

ANSWER

1. D      2. C    3. D      4. A      5. C     6. C     7.A      8.B     9.C     10. C    


CARDIOVASCULARE

1. The layer of simple squamous epithelium that lines the inside of the heart is called

A.      myocardium.

B.      pericardium.

C.      endocardium.

D.      epicardium.

2. Blood transported by the pulmonary veins returns to the

A.      left atrium.

B.      right atrium.

C.      right ventricle.

D.      left ventricle.

3. The valve between the left ventricle and the blood vessel leaving the left ventricle is the

A.      bicuspid valve.

B.      tricuspid valve.

C.      pulmonary semilunar valve.

D.      aortic semilunar valve.

4. The bulk of the heart consists of

A.      cardiac muscle.

B.      smooth muscle.

C.      striated muscle.

D.      connective tissue. 

5. The valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the

A.      tricuspid valve.

B.      bicuspid valve.

C.      mitral valve.

D.       semilunar valve.

6. Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called

A.      arteries.

B.      veins.

C.      capillaries.

D.      All of the above.

7. The smallest type of blood vessels are

A.      arteries.

B.      arterioles.

C.      venules.

D.      capillaries.

8. Blood pressure is highest in the

A.      arteries.

B.      arterioles.

C.      veins.

D.      capillaries.

9. Which of the following increase(s) blood pressure?

A.      increased cardiac rate

B.      increased peripheral resistance

C.      increased blood volume

D.      All of the above.

10. The pulse is a direct reflection of the

A.      cardiac output.

B.      blood pressure.

C.      venous return.

D.      heart beat.

ANSWER

1. C   2. A    3. D    4. A    5. A    6. A    7. D    8. A    9. D   10 . D 

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

1. Which of the following is NOT an accessory structure of the digestive system?

A.      liver

B.      gallbladder

C.      pancreas

D.      spleen

2. Salivary amylase secreted into the oral cavity starts the digestion of

A.      proteins.

B.      starch.

C.      lipids.

D.      amino acids.

3. The pancreatic duct transports secretions from the pancreas to the

A.      stomach.

B.      duodenum.

C.      liver.

D.      colon.

4. All of the following are substances found in pancreatic juice except

A.      pepsin.

B.      trypsin.

C.      amylase.

D.      lipase.

5. Bile is produced in the

A.      liver.

B.      small intestine.

C.      pancreas.

D.      stomach.

6. The final portion of the small intestine is the

A.      ileum.

B.      duodenum.

C.      jejunum.

D.      colon.

7. The first portion of the large intestine is the

A.      colon.

B.      cecum.

C.      anal canal.

D.      rectum.

8. The term metabolism refers to

A.      anabolic reactions.

B.      catabolic reactions.

C.      oxidation.

D.      All the chemical reactions of the body.

9. Glucose is stored in the liver as

A.      starch.

B.      fat.

C.      glycogen.

D.      ATP.

10. During digestion, proteins are broken down into molecules of

A.      glucose.

B.      fatty acids.

C.      amino acids.

D.      nucleic acids.

ANSWER

1..D       2. B     3. B       4. A      5.  A      6. A     7. B    8. D    9.C    10.C

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

1. The exchange of gases between blood and cells is called

A.      pulmonary ventilation.

B.      internal respiration.

C.      external repiration.

D.      cellular respiration.

2. Which of the following does NOT belong to the conducting prtion of the respiratory system?

A.      alveoli

B.      bronchioles

C.      nose

D.      pharynx

3. The structure which closes off the larynx is the

A.      glottis.

B.      Adam's apple.

C.      epiglottis.

D.      vocal cords.

4. Which of the following describes a correct order of structures in the respiratory passeways?

A.      pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles

B.      larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchiles, bronchi

C.      trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles

D.      pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

5. The exchange of gases occurs in the

A.      trachea.

B.      bronchioles.

C.      alveoli.

D.      bronchus.

6. The volume of air that can be exhaled after normal exhaltation is the

A.      tidal volume.

B.      residual volume.

C.      inspiratory reserve volume.

D.      expiratory reserve volume.

7. The volume of air in a normal breath is called

A.      total lung capacity.

B.      vital capacity.

C.      tidal volume.

D.      residual volume.

8. Gas exchange in the lungs happens by the process of

A.      osmosis.

B.      diffusion.

C.      exocytosis.

D.      active transport.

9. Most oxygen in the blood is transported

A.      as gas dissolved in plasma.

B.      as oxyhemoglobin.

C.      as carboxyhemoglobin.

D.      as bicarbonate.

10. The primary chemical stimulus for breathing is the concentration of

A.      carbon monoxide in the blood.

B.      carbon dioxide in the blood.

C.      oxygen in the blood.

D.      carbonic acid in the blood.

ANSWER

1. B   2. A   3. C     4. E     5. C   6. D    7.  C    8. B      9. B      10. B 

URINARY SYSTEM

1. The kidneys

A.      help regulate blood volume.

B.      help control blood pressure.

C.      help control pH.

D.      All of the above are correct.

2. The location of the kidneys in relationship to the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is referre to as

A.      retroperitoneal.

B.      retroabdominal.

C.      posterior.

D.      dorsal.

3. All of the following belong to the urinary system EXCEPT the

A.      urethra.

B.      ureter.

C.      bladder.

D.      prostate.

4. The functional unit of the kidney is called a

A.      glomerulus.

B.      nephron.

C.      corpuscle.

D.      calyx.

5. Most glucose molecules are reabsorbed in the

A.      proximal convoluted tubules.

B.      distal convoluted tubules.

C.      collecting ducts.

D.      loop of Henle.

6. Which of the following substances can be eliminated from the blood by tubular secretions?

A.      potassium ions

B.      hydrogen ions

C.      ammonium ions

D.      All of the above.

7. The structure that connects a kidney to the urinary bladder is the

A.      ureter.

B.      urethra.

C.      renal pelvis.

D.      collecting duct.

8. Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder by

A.      excretion.

B.      defecation.

C.      micturition.

D.      filtration.

9. All the following are principle solutes of urine EXCEPT

A.      urea.

B.      creatinine.

C.      glycogen.

D.      uric acid.

10. Which of the following hormones increase reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts?

A.      renin.

B.      ADH.

C.      aldosterone.

D.      insulin.  

ANSWER

1. D        2. A    3. D      4. B     5. A      6. D      7. A       8. C      9. C     10. B 

NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system are

A.      motor neurons.

B.      efferent neurons.

C.      interneurons.

D.      sensory neurons.

2. Processes that carry nerve impulses away from the cell body are called

A.      dendrites.

B.      axons.

C.      synapses.

D.      myelin sheaths.

3. The neuroglia that produce myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system are

A.      Schwann cells.

B.      oligodendrocytes.

C.      microglia.

D.      astroctyes.

4. The portion of the nervous system that is considered involuntary is the

A.      somatic nervous system.

B.      sensory nervous system.

C.      autonomic nervous system.

D.      motor nervous system.

5. All of the following are functions of the nervous system EXCEPT

A.      senses changes.

B.      analyzes changes.

C.      stores calcium.

D.      responses to changes.

6. The different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest is called

A.      action potential.

B.      synaptic potential.

C.      resting membrane potential.

D.      equilibrium potential.

7. The stage in an action potential that immediately follows depolarization is

A.      polarization.

B.      repolarization.

C.      threshold.

D.      the resting period.

8. The junction between two nerve cells is called

A.      neuromuscular junction.

B.      neuroglandular junction.

C.      gap junction.

D.      synapse.

9. Neurotransmitters are released at the

A.      dendrite.

B.      axon terminal.

C.      cell body.

D.      myelin sheath.

10. In the reflex arc, a muscle or gland is considered to be the

A.      receptor.

B.      integrating center.

C.      motor neuron.

D.      effector.

ANSWER

1. D        2. B    3. A      4. C     5. C      6. C      7. B       8. D      9. B     10. D 

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

1. All of the following are endocrine glands EXCEPT:

A.      adrenal glands

B.      sebaceous glands

C.      pineal glands

D.      pituitary glands

2. Hormones that enter target cells and bind to receptors in the nucleus are called

A.      steroid hormones.

B.      water soluble hormones.

C.      peptide hormones.

D.      second messengers.

3. The hormones regulating blood calcium levels are

A.      insulin and glucagon.

B.      glycogen and parathyroid hormone.

C.      parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.

D.      estrogen and progesterone.

4. All of the following are hormones of the anterior pituitary EXCEPT

A.      human growth hormone (GH).

B.      follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

C.      parathyroid hormone(PTH).

D.      thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

5. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are stored and released by the

A.      posterior pituitary gland.

B.      anterior pituitary gland.

C.      thyroid gland.

D.      adrenal gland.

6. Calcitonin is a hormone of the

A.      adrenal cortex.

B.      thyroid gland.

C.      pituitary gland.

D.      thymus gland.

7. Mineralcorticoids

A.      are produced in the adrenal cortex.

B.      are steroid hormones.

C.      help regulate the homeostasis of sodium and potasium.

D.      all of the above.

8. Which of the following hormones are responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response?

A.      epinephrine and norepinephrine.

B.      insulin and glucagon.

C.      esrtogen and progesterone.

D.      thyroxin and melatonin.

9. The gland which can be classified as an endocrine and an exocrine gland is the

A.      thyroid.

B.      thymus.

C.      pancreas.

D.      pituitary.

10. . Glucagon
A.      accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
B.      slows down glucose formation from lactic acid.
C.      decreases the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
D.      speeds up protein synthesis within cells.

ANSWER

1. B      2. A    3. C      4. C     5. A      6. A      7. D       8. A      9. C     10. A 

REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. Sperm production begins in the

A.      seminiferous tubules.

B.      epididymis.

C.      vas deferens.

D.      ejaculatory duct.

2. The cell produced by fertilization is called

A.      gamete.

B.      embryo.

C.      fetus.

D.      zygote.

3. The production of testosterone in the interstitial cells is stimulated by

A.      inhibin.

B.      luteinizing hormone (LH).

C.      follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

D.      progesterone.

4. Sperm maturation occurs in the

A.      seminiferous tubules.

B.      epididymis.

C.      vas deferens.

D.      urethra.

5. The layer of the uterine wall that is shed during menstruation is the

A.      endometrium.

B.      myometrium.

C.      epimetrium.

D.      None of the above.

6. The external genitalia of the female are collectively called

A.      labia.

B.      vulva.

C.      clitoris.

D.      mons pubis.

7.The hormone that works with estrogen to prepare the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg is

A.      LH.

B.      FSH.

C.      ADH.

D.      progesterone.

8. The average menstrual cycle is

A.      14 days.

B.      18 days.

C.      24 days.

D.      28 days.

9. The structure between the uterus and the vagina is the

A.      uterine tube.

B.      cervix.

C.      vulva.

D.      hymen.

10. The hormone that stimulates uterine contractions is

A.      oxytocin.

B.      estrogen.

C.      granular cell carcinoma.

D.      progesterone.

ANSWER

1. A      2. D    3. B    4. B     5. A      6. B      7. D       8. D      9. B     10. A 


LYMPATIC SYSTEM

1. All of the following belong to the lymphatic system EXCEPT

A.      lymph.

B.      lymphatic vessels.

C.      red bone marrow.

D.      yellow bone marrow.

2. Which of the following cells produce antibodies?

A.      T-lymphocytes

B.      B-lymphocytes

C.      monocytes

D.      phagocytes

3. Lymph nodes

A.      are bean-shaped organs.

B.      are located along lymphatic vessels.

C.      are scattered throughout the body.

D.      All of the above.

4. Worn-out and damaged red blood cells are destroyed in the

A.      thymus gland.

B.      tonsils.

C.      spleen.

D.      lymph nodes.

5. The first line of defense against disease-causing organisms is

A.      cell-based immunity.

B.      production of antibodies.

C.      inflammation.

D.      the intact skin.

6. Complement proteins

A.      are found in blood plasma.

B.      are present in infected cells.

C.      are produced by T-cells.

D.      are produced by B-cells.

7. All of the following are symptoms of inflammation EXCEPT

A.      pain

B.      redness

C.      fever

D.      swelling

8. Which of the following an act as an antigen?

A.      bacteria

B.      viruses

C.      food

D.      All of the above.

9. Vaccination is an example of

A.      naturally aquired active immunity.

B.      naturally acquired passive immunity.

C.      artifically acquired active immunity.

D.      artifically acquired passive immunity.

10. Cell-mediated immunity is provided by

A.      macrophages.

B.      basophils.

C.      T-cells.

D.      B-cells.

ANSWER

1. D      2. B    3. D    4. C     5. D      6. A      7. C       8. D      9. C     10. C