Thursday, September 25, 2014

SOAL REPROSUKSI SEL GRADE 2

 Pagi ini saya menemukan buku dengan seri soal sederhana tentang Reproduksi namun mendalam hanya perlu mikir karena bahasa nya Inggris , Ayo belajar ...atau pakai language yang tersedia di kanan dengan dirubah indonesia OK 
 

SOAL REPRODUKSI
 
 
1) If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?
A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.
B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.
C) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.
D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.
E) Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.
Answer: C

2) The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?
A) every human cell
B) each human chromosome
C) the entire DNA of a single human
D) the entire human population
E) each human gene
Answer: A

3) In the human species, all somatic cells have 46 chromosomes. Which of the following can also be true?
A) A plant species (privet shrubs) has 46 chromosomes per cell.
B) Some adult humans have 69 chromosomes per cell.
C) Some adult humans have 23 chromosomes per cell.
D) A certain fungal species has only one chromosome per cell.
E) A certain bacterial species has 23 chromosomes.
Answer: A

4) Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction?
A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi.
B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.
C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
D) Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.
E) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.
Answer: B

5) Which of the following defines a genome?
A) representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
B) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
C) the complete set of a species' polypeptides
D) a karyotype
E) the complete set of an organism's genes
Answer: E

6) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase
Answer: B

7) The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.
Answer: D

8) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.
Answer: C

9) Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores
A) I, IV, and V
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V
E) I, II, III, IV, and V
Answer: C

10) Which of these statements is false?
A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).
C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.
Answer: D

11) Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A) sporophyte meiosis
B) gametophyte mitosis
C) gametophyte meiosis
D) sporophyte mitosis
E) alternation of generations
Answer: B

12) Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
A) A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
E) A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.
Answer: B

13) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A) mitosis in her ovary
B) metaphase I of one meiotic event
C) telophase II of one meiotic event
D) telophase I of one meiotic event
E) either anaphase I or II
Answer: E

14) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A) It must be human.
B) It must be a primate.
C) It must be an animal.
D) It must be sexually reproducing.
E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
Answer: E

15) A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C) 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
D) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes
Answer: B

16) A karyotype results from which of the following?
A) a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) an inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C) the ordering of human chromosome images
D) the cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E) the separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis
Answer: C

17) Which of the following best describes a karyotype?
A) a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
B) a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
C) the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
D) the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism
E) a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes
Answer: B

18) If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
B) It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis.
C) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
D) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
E) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis.
Answer: A

19) Which of the following can utilize both mitosis and meiosis in the correct circumstances?
A) a haploid animal cell
B) a diploid cell from a plant stem
C) any diploid animal cell
D) a plantlike protist
E) an archaebacterium
Answer: D

20) Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?
A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C) fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species
D) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E) lack of chiasmata in prophase I
Answer: A

21) The somatic cells of a privet shrub each contain 46 chromosomes. To be as different as they are from human cells, which have the same number of chromosomes, which of the following must be true?
A) Privet cells cannot reproduce sexually.
B) Privet sex cells have chromosomes that can synapse with human chromosomes in the laboratory.
C) Genes of privet chromosomes are significantly different than those in humans.
D) Privet shrubs must be metabolically more like animals than like other shrubs.
E) Genes on a particular privet chromosome, such as the X, must be on a different human chromosome, such as number 18.
Answer: C

22) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
A) Length and position of the centromere only.
B) Length, centromere position, and staining pattern only.
C) Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.
D) Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences.
E) They have nothing in common except they are X-shaped.
Answer: C

23) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
Answer: D

24) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
Answer: D

25) When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?
A) late prophase of meiosis I
B) during fertilization or fusion of gametes
C) early anaphase of meiosis I
D) mid-prophase of meiosis II
E) late metaphase of meiosis II
Answer: A

26) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A) Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C) Sister chromatids are separated.
D) Four daughter cells are formed.
E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.
Answer: A

27) A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
Answer: B

28) Chromatids are separated from each other.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
Answer: E

29) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
Answer: B

30) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) chromosome replication
B) synapsis of chromosomes
C) production of daughter cells
D) alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) condensation of chromatin
Answer: B

31) If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?
A) at most, 2 alleles for that gene
B) up to 18 chromosomes with that gene
C) up to 18 genes for that trait
D) a haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E) up to, but not more than, 18 different traits
Answer: A

32) Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur.
D) They must reattach to chromosomes during G₁.
E) They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.
Answer: C

33) Experiments with cohesins have found that
A) cohesins are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II.
B) cohesins are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I.
C) cohesins are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I.
D) a protein cleaves cohesins before metaphase I.
E) a protein that cleaves cohesins would cause cellular death.
Answer: C

34) A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A) two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B) two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C) four sets of sister chromatids
D) four sets of unique chromosomes
E) eight sets of sister chromatids
Answer: B

35) When we see chiasmata under a microscope, that lets us know which of the following has occurred?
A) asexual reproduction
B) meiosis II
C) anaphase II
D) prophase I
E) separation of homologs
Answer: D

36) To view and analyze human chromosomes in a dividing cell, which of the following is/are required?
A) electron microscope
B) radioactive staining
C) fluorescent staining
D) DNA stain and a light microscope
E) a stain particular to human cells
Answer: D

37) To visualize and identify meiotic cells at metaphase with a microscope, what would you look for?
A) sister chromatids grouped at the poles
B) individual chromosomes all at the cell's center
C) an uninterrupted spindle array
D) the synaptonemal complex
E) tetrads all aligned at the cell's center
Answer: E

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

38) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VIII
Answer: B

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

39) Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present.
A) I only
B) I and IV only
C) I and VIII only
D) II and VI only
E) I, II, III, and IV only
Answer: A

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

40) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VII
Answer: E

The following question refers to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of the homologs; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs

41) Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 2, 3, and 5
Answer: B

42) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A) by allowing crossing over
B) by allowing fertilization
C) by increasing gene stability
D) by conserving chromosomal gene order
E) by decreasing mutation frequency
Answer: A

43) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A) 23
B) 46
C) 460
D) 920
E) about 8 million
Answer: E

44) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of

A) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
B) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.
C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.
D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
E) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I, the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm, the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II, and the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
Answer: A

45) Which of the following best describes the frequency of crossing over in mammals?
A) ~50 per chromosome pair
B) ~2 per meiotic cell
C) at least 1-2 per chromosome pair
D) ~1 per pair of sister chromatids
E) a very rare event among hundreds of cells
Answer: C

46) When homologous chromosomes crossover, what occurs?
A) Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA.
B) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.
C) Specific proteins break the two strands and re-join them with their homologs.
D) Each of the four DNA strands of a tetrad is broken and the pieces are mixed.
E) Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles and vice versa.
Answer: C

47, See image Figure in bellow


Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I and III
Answer: A

48) Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae?


A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I and III
Answer: C

49) Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists?


A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) I and III
Answer: B

50) In part III of Figure the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series?


A) zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis
B) sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization
C) fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte
D) gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote
E) meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis
Answer: B

51) In a life cycle such as that shown in part III of Figure


 if the zygote's chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true?
A) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 10 and the gametophyte's is 5.
B) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is 5 and the gametophyte's is 10.
C) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell.
D) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell.
E) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 20 chromosomes per cell.
Answer: A

52. card image Figure of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis



Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis?
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) V
E) VI
Answer: A

53. card image Figure of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis


Which diagram(s) represent anaphase II of meiosis?
A) II only
B) III only
C) IV only
D) V only
E) either II or V
Answer: D

54. card image



You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure Refer to the graph to answer the following questions.
Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) either I or II
E) either I or III
Answer: A

55. card image

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure Refer to the graph to answer the following questions.

55) Which sample might represent an animal cell in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?


A) I
B) II
C) III
D) both I and II
E) either II or III
Answer: B

56. card image

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure Refer to the graph to answer the following questions. Which sample might represent a zygote?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) either I or II
E) either II or III
Answer: A

57. A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in Figure



A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following?
A) either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes
B) either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes
C) either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene
D) one chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene
Answer: D

58. A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in Figure 


If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types?
A) only blue short gene eggs
B) only orange short gene eggs
C) one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs
D) three-fourths blue long and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
E) three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
Answer: C

59. A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in Figure 


A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis?
A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.
B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.
C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.
D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.
E) Each egg has a three-fourths chance of having blue long, one-fourth blue short, three-fourths orange long, or one-fourth orange short combinations.
Answer: D

60. There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations.
Since the rotifers develop from eggs, but asexually, what can you predict?
A) The eggs and the zygotes are all haploid.
B) The animals are all hermaphrodites.
C) While asexual, both males and females are found in nature.
D) All males can produce eggs.
E) No males can be found.
Answer: E

61. There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations.
Assuming that the eggs are diploid, tetraploid, or partially tetraploid, what mechanism may still occur without fertilization?
A) meiosis in each generation
B) meiosis in every second generation
C) independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes
D) meiosis in times of adverse environmental conditions
E) crossing over of homologs
Answer: E

62. There is a group of invertebrate animals called rotifers, among which a particular group of species reproduces, as far as is known, only asexually. These rotifers, however, have survived a long evolutionary history without evidence of having been overcome by excessive mutations.
In these asexual rotifers, how does variation occur without meiosis and fertilization?
A) The rotifers have evolved a different mechanism to exchange DNA.
B) Rotifers must produce haploid spores.
C) Variation is caused by mutation and maintained by selection.
D) Some rotifers must selectively lose chromosomes.
E) Rotifers must live only in specialized environments.
Answer: C

63) How is natural selection related to sexual reproduction as opposed to asexual reproduction?
A) Sexual reproduction results in many new gene combinations, some of which will lead to differential reproduction.
B) Sexual reproduction results in the most appropriate and healthiest balance of two sexes in the population.
C) Sexual reproduction results in the greatest number of new mutations.
D) Sexual reproduction allows the greatest number of offspring to be produced.
E) Sexual reproduction utilizes far less energy than asexual reproduction.
Answer: A

64) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A) a sperm.
B) an egg.
C) a zygote.
D) a somatic cell of a male.
E) a somatic cell of a female.
Answer: A

65) Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?
A) gamete
B) zygote
C) multicellular diploid
D) multicellular haploid
E) unicellular diploid
Answer: D

66) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) fertilization.
E) binary fission.
Answer: B

67) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
B) DNA replicates before the division.
C) the daughter cells are diploid.
D) homologous chromosomes synapse.
E) the chromosome number is reduced.
Answer: A

68) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G₁ phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
A) 0.25x.
B) 0.5x.
C) x.
D) 2x.
E) 4x.
Answer: D

69) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G₁ phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II would be
A) 0.25x.
B) 0.5x.
C) x.
D) 2x.
E) 4x.
Answer: C

70) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8(2n = 8)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Answer : D

SOAL REPRODUKSI SEL GRADE EXPERT

1. The centromere is a region in which

A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.
C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) new spindle microtubules form at either end.
Answer: A

2. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64
Answer: D

3.  If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
Answer: A

4. For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission?
A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.
C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission.
D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.
Answer: B

5) Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following?
A) one-twelfth of the genes of the organism
B) two chromosomes, each with six chromatids
C) a single circular piece of DNA
D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins
E) two chromatids attached together at a centromere
Answer: D

6) At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
Answer: E

7) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
Answer: D

8) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
Answer: A

9) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?
A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) centriole
D) chromatid
E) kinetochore
Answer: B

10) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect
A) the formation of the mitotic spindle.
B) anaphase.
C) formation of the centrioles.
D) chromatid assembly.
E) the S phase of the cell cycle.
Answer: A

11) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A) kinetochores
B) Golgi-derived vesicles
C) actin and myosin
D) centrioles and centromeres
E) cyclin-dependent kinases
Answer: B

12) In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis?
A) seedless plants
B) dinoflagellates
C) diatoms
D) dinoflagellates and diatoms only
E) seedless plants, dinoflagellates, and diatoms
Answer: D

13) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that
A) reduces cyclin concentrations.
B) increases cyclin concentrations.
C) prevents elongation of microtubules.
D) prevents shortening of microtubules.
E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.
Answer: D

14) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?
A) G₀
B) G₁
C) S
D) G₂
E) M
Answer: D

15) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G₂?
A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16
Answer: D

16) For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?
A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.
Answer: C

17) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
A) to increase their potential energy
B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E) to provide for the structure of the centromere
Answer: B

18) Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis?
A) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules.
B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
C) Nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.
D) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, and motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
E) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules, and nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.
Answer: D

19) Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores?
A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes
B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete
C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores
D) maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center
E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another
Answer: D

20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) cytokinesis
Answer: A

21) Which of the following was a discovery that had to be made before human chromosomes could be correctly counted?
A) how to use a hypotonic solution to swell nuclei
B) how to visualize sperm nuclei
C) how to visualize chromosomes
D) when to see chromosomes separate from one another
E) when to see chromosomes in pairs
Answer: A

22) Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?
A) intact centromeres
B) an MTOC (microtubule organizing center)
C) a kinetochore attached to the metaphase plate
D) ATP as an energy source
E) synthesis of cohesin
Answer: D

23) What is a cleavage furrow?
A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate
B) the separation of divided prokaryotes
C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
D) the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle
E) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase
Answer: C

24) Which of the following proteins are involved in binary fission as well as eukaryotic mitotic division?
A) cyclins
B) Cdks
C) MPF
D) actin and tubulin
E) cohesins
Answer: D

25) Using which of the following techniques would enable your lab group to distinguish between a cell in G₂ and a cell from the same organism in G₁?
A) fluorescence microscopy
B) electron microscopy
C) spectrophotometry
D) radioactive-labeled nucleotides
E) labeled kinetochore proteins
Answer: D

26) You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G₁?
A) organelle density and enzymatic activity
B) cell wall components and DNA
C) chlorophyll and cell walls
D) organelle density and cell walls
E) chlorophyll and DNA
Answer: A

27) A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G₂?
A) The cells would immediately die.
B) The cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G₂.
C) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach.
D) The chromosomes would segregate but in a disorderly pattern.
E) Each resultant daughter cell would also be unable to form a spindle.
Answer: C

28) What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?
A) an increase in production once the restriction point is passed
B) the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk
C) the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome
D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin
E) the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface
Answer: D

29) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Answer: A

30) Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Answer: D

31) Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Answer: E

32) Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G₂ checkpoint into mitosis?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Answer: B

33) The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of which phase?
A) G₀
B) G₁
C) S
D) G₂
E) M
Answer: E

34) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) ATPases.
B) kinetochores.
C) kinases.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.
Answer: E

35) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by
A) activating a process that destroys cyclin components.
B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin.
C) binding to chromatin.
D) exiting the cell.
E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex.
Answer: A

36) A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G₁ phase.
Answer: E

37) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?
A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors.
B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing.
C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor.
D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle.
E) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.
Answer: B

38) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls.
E) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
Answer: E

39) Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?
A) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin.
B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle.
C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
D) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin and it is present throughout the cell cycle.
E) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle and is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
Answer: E

40) A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with Cdk 2 (cyclin-dependent kinase 2). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G₁ into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The amount of free cyclin E is greatest during the S phase.
B) The amount of free Cdk 2 is greater during G₁ compared to the S phase.
C) The amount of free cyclin E is highest during G₁.
D) The amount of free Cdk 2 is greatest during G₁.
E) The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G₂.
Answer: C

41) Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur?
A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent.
B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent.
C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints.
D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism.
E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
Answer: C

42) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?
A) metastasis
B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages
C) lack of appropriate cell death
D) inability to form spindles
E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate
Answer: C

43) After which checkpoint is the cell first committed to continue the cell cycle through M?
A) G₀
B) G₁
C) G₂
D) S
E) previous M
Answer: B

44) Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?
A) They no longer have active nuclei.
B) They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules.
C) They have been shunted into G₀.
D) They can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin.
E) They show a drop in MPF concentration.
Answer: C

45) Which of the following most accurately describes a cyclin?
A) It is present in similar concentrations throughout the cell cycle.
B) It is activated to phosphorylate by complexing with a Cdk.
C) It decreases in concentration when MPF activity increases.
D) It activates a Cdk molecule when it is in sufficient concentration.
E) It activates a Cdk when its concentration is decreased.
Answer: D

46) All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?
A) They respond to the same cyclins.
B) They utilize the same Cdks.
C) They give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint.
D) They each have only one cyclin/Cdk complex.
E) They activate or inactivate other proteins.
Answer: E
47) At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?
A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.
B) Cohesins alter separase to allow chromatids to separate.
C) Kinetochores are able to bind to spindle microtubules.
D) All microtubules are made to bind to kinetochores.
E) Daughter cells are allowed to pass into G₁.
Answer: A

48) What explains anchorage dependence of animal cells in vitro or in vivo?
A) attachment of spindle fibers to centrioles
B) response of the plasma membrane to cell cycle controls
C) the makeup of the extracellular matrix of the substrate
D) the binding of cell-surface phospholipids to those of adjoining cells
E) the binding of cell-surface phospholipids to the substrate
Answer: B

49) A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?
A) The cells originated in the nervous system.
B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D) The cells show characteristics of tumors.
E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
Answer: D

50) For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?
A) It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis.
B) It does not alter metabolically active cells.
C) It only attacks cells that are density dependent.
D) It interferes with cells entering G₀.
E) It interferes with rapidly dividing cells.
Answer: E

51) You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do?
A) See which ones are not overproliferating.
B) Find out which ones have a higher rate of apoptosis.
C) Karyotype samples to look for unusual size and number of chromosomes.
D) Measure metastasis.
E) Time their cell cycles.
Answer: C

52. The lettered circle in Figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. 


There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following stages.
What is the correct chromosomal condition at the prometaphase of mitosis?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: B

52. The lettered circle in Figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. 


There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following stages.

53) What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: E

54) If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?


A) cell membrane synthesis
B) spindle fiber formation
C) nuclear envelope breakdown
D) formation of telophase nuclei
E) synthesis of chromatids
Answer: D

55) In the figure above, mitosis is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?



A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: D

56) G₁ is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?

A) I or V
B) II or IV
C) III only
D) IV only
E) V only
Answer: A

57) Which number represents DNA synthesis?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: B

58) Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: B


59) At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?

A) I and IV
B) II only
C) III only
D) IV only
E) V only
Answer: C

60) MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage.

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: C


61. Use the data in Table to answer the following question.


The data were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma
Of the following, the best conclusion concerning the difference between the S phases for beta and gamma is that
A) gamma contains more DNA than beta.
B) beta and gamma contain the same amount of DNA.
C) beta cells reproduce asexually.
D) gamma contains 48 times more DNA and RNA than beta.
E) beta is a plant cell and gamma is an animal cell.
Answer: A

62. Use the data in Table to answer the following question.


The data were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma
The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells
A) contain no DNA.
B) contain no RNA.
C) contain only one chromosome that is very short.
D) are actually in the G₀ phase.
E) divide in the G₁ phase.
Answer: D

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.

63) These protists are intermediate in what sense?
A) They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature.
B) They never coil up their chromosomes when they are dividing.
C) They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes.
D) They maintain a nuclear envelope during division.
E) None of them form spindles.
Answer: D

64. Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.
A) They represent a form of cell reproduction which must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms.
B) They demonstrate that these species are not closely related to any of the other protists and may well be a different kingdom.
C) They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo.
D) They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis.
E) They show some but not all of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis.
Answer: E

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.

65) Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method?
A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour?
B) What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
C) When is the S chromosome synthesized?
D) How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
E) When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?
Answer: B

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.

66) The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that
A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results.
B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned.
C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.
D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly.
E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.
Answer: C

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.
67) Once they had determined which cells were dividing, the team wanted to use a non-radioactive method to track whether various physiological factors (such as food or body temperature) affect the action of the pathogen. Which of the following would be effective, simple, and safe?
A) measuring picograms of DNA
B) measuring numbers of chromosomes
C) measuring numbers of chromatids
D) counting the frequency of cells in mitosis
E) counting newly formed plasma membranes
Answer: D

The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the female teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results.
68) What might be among the research team's conclusions?
A) The young women showed these results because they have poorer nutrition.
B) The elderly persons' samples demonstrated their lowered immune responses.
C) The young men had higher responses because they are generally healthier.
D) The patient samples should have had the lowest response but did not, so the experiment is invalid.
E) The elderly donor samples represent cells no longer capable of any cell division.
Answer: B

The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the female teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results.
69) Which of the following investigations might be most productive to show what the data on the teenagers might indicate?
A) test male teenagers
B) test teenagers who say they are not sexually active
C) test female teens at different times in their menstrual cycles
D) test relatives of the teens previously tested
E) test teenagers from different school systems
Answer: C

A student is looking through his light microscope (~450 X) at a squashed and stained onion root tip. Some, but not all, of the cells have clearly visible chromosome strands.
70) When a cell is in anaphase of mitosis, which of the following will he see?
A) a clear area in the center of the cell
B) chromosomes clustered at the poles
C) individual chromatids separating
D) chromosomes clustered tightly at the center
E) formation of vesicles at the midline
Answer: A

A student is looking through his light microscope (~450 X) at a squashed and stained onion root tip. Some, but not all, of the cells have clearly visible chromosome strands.
71) When the cell has just completed telophase, which of the following does he see?
A) a clear area in the center of the cell
B) chromosomes clustered at the poles
C) individual chromatids separating
D) formation of vesicles at the midline
E) two small cells with chromatin
Answer: E

72) Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely
A) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis.
B) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis.
C) an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle.
D) a bacterial cell dividing.
E) a plant cell in metaphase.
Answer: B

73) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to
A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.
C) suppression of cyclin production.
D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.
Answer: A

74) One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
A) are unable to synthesize DNA.
B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.
D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition.
E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.
Answer: C

75) The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to
A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk.
B) decreased synthesis of Cdk.
C) the degradation of cyclin.
D) the accumulation of cyclin.
E) synthesis of DNA.
Answer: C

76) In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in
A) cells with more than one nucleus.
B) cells that are unusually small.
C) cells lacking nuclei.
D) destruction of chromosomes.
E) cell cycles lacking an S phase.
Answer: A

77) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?
A) condensation of the chromosomes
B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles
Answer: B

78) A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in
A) G₁.
B) G₂.
C) prophase.
D) metaphase.
E) anaphase.
Answer: A

79) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?
A) spindle formation
B) spindle attachment to kinetochores
C) DNA synthesis
D) cell elongation during anaphase

E) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
Anxwer : E

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